'CCNA Self-Study 640-821 - Ch 1 - Introduction to Networking Match the following definition with the appropriate word: A silicon based CPU. Motherboard *Microprocessor ROM Chassis System unit RAM NIC Expansion card Match the following definition with the appropriate word: Read-write memory that is lost when the power turned off. Motherboard Microprocessor ROM Chassis System unit *RAM NIC Expansion card Match the following definition with the appropriate word: The main part of a PC, including the chassis, microprocessor, main memory, bus and ports. Motherboard Microprocessor ROM Chassis *System unit RAM NIC Expansion card Match the following definition with the appropriate word: A printed circuit board that adds capabilities to a computer Motherboard Microprocessor ROM Chassis System unit RAM NIC *Expansion card A laptop has the same main components as a PC, but they are typically smaller in size. *True False Which of the following are true statements about a NIC? *A NIC is an expansion card. NIC communicates with the network media using parallel communications. *NIC requires an IRQ to request CPU services. All NICs have PCI bus connections. *A NIC can use DMA architecture to directly access the system memory without using the CPU. Which of the following value expressions are true? (Choose all that apply.) *2000 kBps > 2 Mbps *9000 kbps > 1 kBps *8000 kBps = 8 MBps *200 kbps < 2000 kBps 1 GHz > 1000 MHz Which of the following characters express hexadecimal values? *A G H *F *C Given the binary number 111101001110101010010101, which of the following would be the hexadecimal equivalent? 0x59AE8F 0xF1A595 0xF81F85 0xE1FC2A *0xF4EA95 0x58F18F Match the following definition with the appropriate word: A set of rules by which computers communicate. Connectivity devices MAN WAN LAN Logical topology *Protocol NIC Physical topology Match the following definition with the appropriate word: A high-speed network confined to a limited geographic region. Connectivity devices MAN WAN *LAN Logical topology Protocol NIC Physical topology Match the following definition with the appropriate word: Devices used to connect cable segments, or subnets, into a larger internetwork. *Connectivity devices MAN WAN LAN Logical topology Protocol NIC Physical topology Match the following definition with the appropriate word: The layout or physical shape of a network Connectivity devices MAN WAN LAN Logical topology Protocol NIC *Physical topology Which of the following are network applications? Spreadsheet *E-mail *FTP Word processor Calculator *Web browser PowerPoint All corporate internetworks use the same components regardless of their business structure. True *False Match the layer of the OSI model with the appropriate function: Synchronizes dialogue between the presentation layers of the two hosts and manages their data exchange. Layer 1 Layer 2 Layer 3 Layer 4 *Layer 5 Layer 6 Layer 7 Match the layer of the OSI model with the appropriate function: Defines the maximum transmission distance and data rates for a network *Layer 1 Layer 2 Layer 3 Layer 4 Layer 5 Layer 6 Layer 7 Match the layer of the OSI model with the appropriate function: Provides connectivity and path selection between two hosts systems. Layer 1 Layer 2 *Layer 3 Layer 4 Layer 5 Layer 6 Layer 7 Match the layer of the OSI model with the appropriate function: Establishes, maintains, and terminates connectivity of virtual circuits. Layer 1 Layer 2 Layer 3 *Layer 4 Layer 5 Layer 6 Layer 7 For peer-to-peer communications, which of the following statements are true? *Between systems, the headers at each layer communicate information from peer-to-peer. Communications are verified at every layer using a FCS. *The name of the encapsulated information at a particular layer of the OSI model is called a PDU. Network devices operate at the upper three layers of the OSI model. *The physical address of a device is located in the Layer 2 PDU. What signal informs a CPU that an event that needs its attention has occurred? Fiber-optic pulse Frequency I/O address *IRQ What computer component allows the computer to communicate with the network? Sound card *NIC Video card Port adapter Today, what are the common measurements for the speed of a computer microprocessor? (Choose two.) Hz Kbps *MHz Mbps *GHz Convert the decimal number 240 into binary. *11110000 11101110 11111000 11101111 What is the binary number 10111001 in decimal? 180 *185 157 179 178 Which of the following is an application layer protocol? HTTP FTP Telnet SNMP *All of these answers What organization created the OSI reference model? IEEE *ISO DEC DIX An e-mail message is sent from Host A to Host B on a LAN. To send this message, the data must be encapsulated. Which of the following best describes the first step of data encapsulation? Alphanumeric characters are converted into data. The message is segmented into easily transportable chunks. A network header is added to the message (source and destination addresses). The message is converted into binary format. *The user data is sent from an application to the application layer. 'CCNA Self-Study 640-821 - Ch 2 - Internetworking Devices Which of the following correctly describes networking topology? *The network topology defines the way in which the computers, printers, network devices, and other devices are connected. Networks can have either a physical or a logical topology. A physical topology describes the paths that signals travel from one point on the network to another. A logical topology defines the layout of the device and media. Which of the following statements best describes the bus topology? All of its nodes connect directly to a central point. *All of its nodes connect directly to one physical link. All of its nodes connect directly to each other. All of its nodes connect to exactly two other nodes. Which topology has all its nodes connected directly to one center point and has no other connections between nodes? Bus Ring *Star Mesh What is the primary purpose of the second ring in a dual-ring network? Duplex Signaling *Redundancy None of these answers In a complete, full-mesh topology, every node... *Is linked directly to every other node. Is connected to two central nodes. Is linked wirelessly to a central node. None of these answers. Multiport repeaters can provide a simple solution for which of the following problems? Too many types of incompatible equipment on the network Too much traffic on a WAN network Too slow data transmission rates *No single cable connecting all devices What is one disadvantage of using a hub? A hub cannot extend the network operating distance. *A hub cannot filter network traffic. A hub does not allow a star topology. A hub cannot regenerate signals. Which of the following is true concerning bridges and their forwarding decisions? Bridges operate at OSI Layer 2 and use IP addresses to make decisions. Bridges operate at OSI Layer 3 and use IP addresses to make decisions. *Bridges operate at OSI Layer 2 and use MAC addresses to make decisions. Bridges operate at OSI Layer 3 and use MAC addresses to make decisions. Which of the following is true concerning the function of switches? Switches increase the sizes of collision domains. *Switches combine the connectivity of a hub with the traffic regulation of a bridge. Switches combine the connectivity of a hub with the traffic direction of a router. Switches perform Layer 4 path selection. What does a router do? *A router matches information in the routing table with the destination IP address of the data and sends incoming data to the correct next hop device or host. A router matches information in the routing table with the destination MAC address of the data and sends incoming data to the correct subnetwork. A router matches information in the ARP table with the destination IP address of the data and sends incoming data to the correct network address. A router matches information in the routing table with the source IP address of the data and sends incoming data to the correct subnet. Which of the following statements is true? A gateway is a special-purpose device that performs an application layer conversion of information from one protocol stack to another. The Cisco AS5400 Series Universal Gateway offers high capacity in only two rack units, with universal port data, voice, wireless, and fax services on any port at any time. A DSLAM serves as the point of interface between a number of subscriber premises and the carrier network. *All of these answers. What are the functions of AAA servers? Ensure that only authenticated users can get in the network Ensure that the users are allowed access only to the resources they need Record everything the users do after they are allowed entry *All of these answers In a star topology, what happens when a cable between a device and the central device fails? The entire network becomes disconnected. The network resets itself. *The device at the end of the cable becomes disconnected. Nothing, the devices remain online. The rings in a dual-ring topology operate in different directions. *True False Which three functions are defined by the Cisco hierarchical model? Access zone *Distribution layer *Core layer User layer Distribution zone *Access layer Which of the following is a characteristic of a hub? They do Layer 2 filtering. They do Layer 2 path determination. *They are used as network concentration points. They cannot amplify signals. What universally unique identifier does each network device have at Layer 2? IP address Subnet address *MAC address Layer 2 address Which of the following does a router forward? Layer 1 bits Layer 2 frames *Layer 3 datagrams Layer 4 segments What does DSLAM mean? Device for segments, links, and multiplexers *Digital subscriber line access multiplexer Device for segments, links, and multilayer switches Digital subscriber link access multiplexer Which of the following characteristics do firewalls have? (Select all that apply) *Software-based *Hardware-based *Filter traffic Layer 2 device Which OSI layer defines an address that consists of a network portion and a node portion? Layer 1 Layer 2 *Layer 3 Layer 4 Layer 5 Layer 6 Layer 7 Which OSI layer defines a flat address space? Layer 1 *Layer 2 Layer 3 Layer 4 Layer 5 Layer 6 Layer 7 'CCNA Self-Study 640-821 - Ch 3 - Common Types of Networks Which of the following is not one of the recognized IEEE sublayers? Media Access Control *Data Link Control Logical Link Control None of these answers What is the name of the access control method used by Ethernet? TCP/IP *CSMA/CD CMDA/CS CSMA/CA Fast Ethernet supports up to what transfer rate? 5 Mbps 10 Mbps *100 Mbps 1000 Mbps Identify two Gigabit Ethernet cable specifications. 1000BASE-TX 1000BASE-FX *1000BASE-CX *1000BASE-LX 1000BASE-X Which of the following statements best describes a WAN? *Connects LANs that are separated by a large geographic area Connects workstations, terminals, and other devices in a metropolitan area Connects LANs within a large building Connects workstations, terminals, and other devices within a building What is a group of networks that are networked to each other called? *An internetwork A WAN A LAN A workgroup A CSU/DSU is generally used as what type of equipment? Router DTE Switch *DCE DCE and DTE equipment is found at which layer of the OSI reference model? Network Data link *Physical Transport Which physical layer standard is used primarily in Europe and Japan? EIA/TIA-232 V.35 *X.21 G.703 Which data link layer protocol has been replaced by PPP? HDLC *SLIP SDLS LAPF Which of the following is not one of the features of a SAN? SANs enable concurrent access of disk or tape arrays, providing enhanced system performance. SANs provide a reliable disaster recover solution. SANs are scalable. *SANs minimize the system and data availability. Which of the following does not correctly describe the features of CNs? CNs accelerate and improve the use of rich content and eliminate the stream of rich content on the infrastructure. CNs utilize a collection of content engines, located close to the audience, to distribute the content. *The CN was designed to accelerate the delivery of information over the MAN infrastructure. Cisco CNs are tiered. What service offers secure and reliable connectivity over a shared public network infrastructure? Internet *Virtual private network Virtual public network Wide-area network What links enterprise customer headquarters, mobile workers, telecommuters, and branch offices to an internal network over a shared infrastructure? *Access VPNs Intranet VPNs Extranet VPNs Internet VPNs What is the name for the part of the company's LAN that is made available to select parties such as suppliers, customers, or partners? The internet *The extranet The intranet The LAN Why did the IEEE create LLC? To allow for data encryption before transmission To replace an older IBM protocol To create a protocol that would not be controlled by the U.S. government *To meet the need to have part of the data link layer function independently of existing technologies What happens in the event of a collision on an Ethernet segment? Transmission with higher priority is unaffected, and lower-priority transmissions are lost. *Initially, the data is lost but is resent using a backoff algorithm. Transmissions are lost and not resent. Nothing, the Ethernet is immune to collisions. Which is the IEEE standard for Fast Ethernet? 802.3z 802.10 *802.3u 802.5 What is the transmission medium for 1000BASE-SX? Long-wave laser over single-mode and multimode fiber Category 5 UTP copper wiring Balanced, shielded, 150-ohm, two-pair STP copper cable *Short-wave laser over multimode fiber Which statement is not true about a Cisco GBIC? *A 1000BASE-LX/LH interface has the ability to go up to 20 kilometers over single-mode fiber. A Cisco GBIC is hot swappable. Cisco GBIC has been accepted as an industry standard. Cisco GBIC can be intermixed in different combinations on a port-by-port basis. What is the largest component of the Internet? Structured hierarchy *The Internet backbone Global carrier LANs Select all correct attributes of a WAN. It operates at the same geographical level as a LAN. *WAN users must subscribe to services. It uses only Layers 1–4 (physical through transport) of the OSI model. *It can transport data, voice, and video. The WAN path between DTEs is known as what? The link The circuit The channel *All of these answers Which two aspects of CNs make them better than traditional transmission over the Internet? (Choose two.) *They bypass potential sources of congestion by distributing the load across a collection of content engines. They take advantage of Layers 1—3 to optimize WAN communication. *They locate content engines near the audience. They run over Gigabit Ethernet. What is the name given to a private network that is constructed within a public network infrastructure? The Internet ISDN Frame Relay *VPN What type of VPN links regional and remote offices to the headquarter's internal network? Access VPN *Intranet VPN Dial-up VPN Extranet VPN An extranet is the extension of two or more intranet strategies with a secure interaction between participant enterprises and their respective intranets. *True False 'CCNA Self-Study 640-821 - Ch 4 - Network Media What is the maximum cable length for STP? 100 ft 150 ft *100 m 1000 m What is an advantage that coaxial cable has over STP or UTP? It is capable of achieving 10 to 100 Mbps. It is inexpensive. *It can run for a longer distance unboosted. All of these answers. A ______ fiber-optic cable transmits multiple streams of LED-generated light. *Multimode Multichannel Multiphase Wireless communication uses which of the following to transmit data between devices on a LAN? *Radio frequencies LED-generated light Fiber optics None of these answers What is one advantage of using fiber-optic cable in networks? It is inexpensive. It is easy to install. It is an industry standard and is available at any electronics store. *It is capable of higher data rates than either coaxial or twisted-pair cable. Which of the following is an 802.3u specification? 10BASE-F 10BASE-T *100BASE-TX 1000BASE-CX Which of the following is a more appropriate choice for Ethernet connectivity? 10-Mbps Ethernet as a connection between server and LAN Gigabit Ethernet as the link at the access layer to provide good performance *Fast Ethernet as a link between the access layer and distribution layer devices to support the aggregate traffic from each Ethernet segment on the access link 100-Mbps between core switches to provide greater bandwidth. Which standard body created the cables and connector specification used to support Ethernet implementation? ISO NSI *EIA/TIA IETF Which of the following statements does not correctly describe a media connector? *RJ-45 connectors are 8-pin connectors that resemble telephone jacks. An AUI is a 15-pin connector used between a NIC and an Ethernet cable. The GBIC is a transceiver that converts serial electric currents to optical signals and vice versa. None of these answers. For which of the following would you not need to provide a crossover cable? Connecting uplinks between switches *Connecting routers to switches Connecting hubs to switches *Connecting to a console port Which of the following is not a physical WAN implementation? DSL ISDN Frame Relay *Gigabit Ethernet What type of data transmission method is used by a WAN? Parallel *Serial Single Multimode Which of the following media interconnects the ISDN BRI port to the service provider device? *UTP straight-through UTP crossover Coaxial Fiber-optic What type of connector is used for DSL connection? RJ-45 *RJ-11 BNC DB-9 What type of connector connects a router and cable system? RJ-45 RJ-11 *F-Type AUI What type of cable connects a terminal and a console port? Straight-through *Rollover Crossover Coaxial What is the maximum cable length for Thinnet coaxial cable? 100 meters *185 meters 500 meters 1600 meters What are the transmission rates of wireless communication? 9–11 Mbps *9 kbps–54 Mbps 1–9 Mbps 1 kbps–9 Mbps At which layer of the OSI model do the cabling aspects of a LAN exist? Transport Network Data link *Physical Which of the following are not optical GBICs? Short wavelength (1000BASE-SX) *High-frequency wavelength (1000BASE-FX/HX) Long wavelength/long haul (1000BASE-LX/LH) Extended distance (1000BASE-ZX) How is serial transmission different from parallel transmission? (Select two.) Serial transmission is faster than parallel transmission. *They use different connectors. *Serial transmission sends data 1 bit at a time, and parallel transmission sends several bits at one time. Parallel transmission is used over WAN links. Typically, a router is _____ . *A DTE device A DCE device Both a DTE and a DCE device Neither a DTE nor a DCE device If you are using an ISDN device that has an interface marked BRI S/T, what does this imply? The BRI interface is capable of supertransmission. The device has an NT1 built-in. *The device does not have an NT1 built-in. The ISDN send/transmit interface. 'CCNA Self-Study 640-821 - Ch 5 - Layer 2 Switching Fundamentals What is the maximum distance for thin Ethernet without using a repeater? *185 meters 250 meters 500 meters 800 meters Which statements describe a feature of a hub? (Choose three.) *All resources are shared. A hub filters traffic based on a MAC address. *A hub implements physical layer functionality. A hub implements data link layer functionality. A hub reduces the size of the collision domain. *A hub transmits all bits to all devices on a segment. Which behavior best describes a unicast transmission? A frame is filtered through a single bridge. *A frame is sent from one point to another point. A frame is passed but not filtered through a hub. A frame is sent from one point to all other points. A frame is sent simultaneously to a specific group of devices. Which behavior best describes a broadcast transmission? A frame is filtered through a single bridge. A frame is sent from one point to another point. A frame is passed but not filtered through a hub. *A frame is sent from one point to all other points. A frame is sent simultaneously to a specific group of devices. Which behavior best describes a multicast transmission? A frame is filtered through a single bridge. A frame is sent from one point to another point. A frame is passed but not filtered through a hub. A frame is sent from one point to all other points. *A frame is sent simultaneously to a specific group of devices. What term describes the results of two or more stations on a network trying to transmit simultaneously on a shared network segment? Filtering *Collision Switching Propagation Broadcasting Which condition is a likely cause of network congestion? Short cables Too many collision domains Multiple segments on a bridge *Bandwidth-intensive applications Which characteristics best describe a LAN switch? (Choose two.) Separates broadcast domains *Functionally resembles a multiport bridge Connects remote and local-area networks together *Code is optimized and embedded in hardware Forwards packets from a single source to a predefined set of client stations Which statements describe a feature of a switch? (Choose three.) Operates at Layer 1 of OSI model *Builds and maintains a MAC address table *Interconnects multiple LAN segments Increases the size of the collision domain *Filters frames based on the destination address Which of the following functionalities of a switch differentiate it from a bridge? (Choose four.) Extends a collision domain *Enables full-duplex communication *Creates dedicated segments per user Connects two LAN segments together Uses MAC addresses to forward frames *Handles multiple simultaneous conversations *Translates speeds between different rate segments Which statements accurately describe the two forwarding methods used by switches? (Choose two.) Cut-through switching increases latency. *Store-and-forward switching performs error checking. Store-and-forward switching reduces latency. Store-and-forward switching copies only the destination address into the buffers. *Cut-through switching does not wait to receive the whole frame before forwarding it to the destination. Cut-through switching discards frames of less than 64 bytes or more than 1518 bytes, including the CRC. Which frame switching method is primarily used to provide switched connections between ports of unlike bandwidths? Cut-through Symmetrical Asymmetrical *Store-and-forward Which functionality best fits a Layer 2 switch? Routes once, switches many Provides security through access lists Switches when it can, routes when it must *Forwards frames based on MAC addresses Switches or routes incoming traffic dynamically Switches within a collision domain and routes between collision domains Place the frame-forwarding sequence in the correct order of occurrence for a switch receiving a frame that has an unknown source address. [DD] The switch receives a frame from a network on an incoming port. The switch enters the source MAC address and the switch port that received the frame into the MAC table. The switch floods the frame to all ports. The destination device replies to the request. The switch receives a frame from the destination device and enters that MAC address and the switch port that received the frame into the MAC table. The switch forwards frames to the destination without flooding. In which of the following conditions would a bridging loop most likely occur? A redundant network between two unique collision domains A redundant routed network with the Spanning Tree Protocol A redundant bridged network with the Spanning Tree Protocol A redundant routed network without the Spanning Tree Protocol *A redundant bridged network without the Spanning Tree Protocol The Spanning Tree Protocol performs which of the following? Creates multiple broadcast domains Switches when it can, routes when it must Creates static routes to prevent bridging loops *Detects and breaks loops by placing some connections is a standby mode Sends an alarm to a management station in the event of a link failure Which characteristic best describes a VLAN? Devices within a VLAN are physically colocated. VLANs must be interconnected with the same switch. Devices within a VLAN must be interconnected with the same router. *Devices are geographically dispersed but are on the same physical segment. Devices are geographically in the same place but communicate virtually as if they are in different broadcast domains. Which statements are benefits of adding a VLAN? (Choose two.) *Managing broadcasts reduces traffic load. *Flooding of a frame is limited to the switch ports that belong to a VLAN. Security is ensured by reconfiguration each time a user moves to a new VLAN. Changing the VLAN membership of the devices to a new switch reduces port costs. Which of these components is used as the entry point into the VLAN? Trunk port MAC port *Switch port VLAN port Which method can dynamically establish VLAN membership? *MAC address Routing protocol Ethernet segment Layer 3 access list In a VLAN, which device provides communication between broadcast domains? Hub Bridge Trunk *Router Switch Using a hub to interconnect devices has the same results as having the network devices on one Ethernet 10BASE2 segment. *True False Congestion causes which effects? (Choose two.) Shorter segment lengths *Lower reliability and low traffic rates Network predictability, low error rates *Slower response times, longer file transfers, and network delays What type of traffic can cause the most overhead on an Ethernet network? Unicast Multicast *Broadcast Domain Name Service Which statements best describe a bridge? (Choose two.) Filters frames based on access lists Routes frames based on IP addresses *Forwards frames from one network segment to another Amplifies and cleans signals before passing every frame along the network *Addresses the problem of too much traffic on a segment or a network At what layer of the OSI model do switches operate? Session layer Physical layer Network layer *Data link layer Transport layer Presentation layer Application layer Which best describes a network segment? *A section of the network to which a group of devices share the same physical media A section of network that contains Token Ring topology A section of network bounded by routers, switches, or bridges A section of network that is a logical grouping based on MAC addresses Which statement is not a characteristic of LAN switching? Operates at OSI Layer 2 Microsegments the network *Forwards packets based on IP addresses Learns the location of a station by examining the source address What features do store-and-forward mode allow the switch to perform? (Choose two.) Broadcasting *Error checking Cell switching *Full receipt of all bits before forwarding the frame Forwarding of bits before entire frame is received Which switching method looks at the destination address of the frame and then forwards the frame without waiting to receive the entire frame? *Cut-through Cut-throat Fragment-free Store-and-forward What are the functions of the Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.) *Manages the topologies within a switched or bridged network Switches or routes information based on the type of data packet Provides routing information to the connected neighboring hosts *Transparently reconfigures bridges and switches to avoid the creation of loops What is the only switching method supported by bridges? Cut-through Fast-forward Fragment-free *Store-and-forward What function of a Cisco switch allows a user to create separate broadcast domains? *VLAN Bridging Cut-through Store-and-forward Transparent bridging Identify the benefits of using a VLAN. (Choose two.) Reduced collision Decreased security *Easier implementation of segmentation *Increased number of broadcast domains What device is needed to pass a packet between VLANs? Hub Bridge *Router Switch Repeater Which statement pertaining to VLANs is false for Cisco switches? VLANs help in distributing traffic load. *VLANs can be defined according to port groups, users, or protocols. Switches form one of the core components of VLAN communications. VLAN benefits include tighter network security with establishment of secure user groups, and better management and control of broadcasts. VLANs can be created according to which category? (Choose all that apply.) *Ports *Groups *MAC addresses *Functional teams *Users sharing an application What is the result of segmenting a switch into multiple VLANS? (Choose two.) Network congestion increases. More broadcast traffic is switched. *The amount of broadcast traffic is limited. *Bandwidth is more effectively allocated. 'CCNA Self-Study 640-821 - Ch 6 - The Transport & Internet Layer Protocol Which of the following protocols operates at the Internet layer? (Choose two.) FTP *ARP TFTP *ICMP SMTP Which statements best describe a function of IP? (Choose three.) Operates at the transport layer *Is an unreliable, best-effort delivery method *Uses packets to carry information through the network *Addresses each packet with the source and destination address Uses a checksum technique to verify that packets are not corrupted Which statements best describe a function of ICMP? (Choose three.) Resends unacknowledged packets Numbers packets for reordering at the destination *Announces when a device is unreachable on the network Provides bidirectional binary file and ASCII file transfer support *Generates messages to slow down network traffic from the source *Uses the echo function to send a packet on a round trip between two devices Uses failed acknowledgments to alert the sender to slow down packet transmission Which statement best describes a function of ARP? Maintains an error resource table *Maps a known IP address to a MAC address Maps a given MAC address to an IP address Dynamically assigns addresses across the network Sends a broadcast message looking for the router address Which statement best describes a function of RARP? Maintains an error resource table Maps a known IP address to a MAC address *Maps a given MAC address to an IP address Dynamically assigns addresses across the network Sends a broadcast message looking for the router address Which statement best describes a function of DHCP? Maintains an error resource table Maps a known IP address to a MAC address Maps a given MAC address to an IP address *Dynamically assigns addresses across the network Sends a broadcast message looking for the router address Which of the following are fields in the IP header? (Choose three.) Window Code bits *Total length *Time-To-Live Sequence number *Source IP address Acknowledgment number Which statement best describes the function of the Protocol field in an IP header? Identifies a link-layer protocol Identifies a session layer protocol *Identifies a transport layer protocol Identifies an application layer protocol Identifies a network access layer protocol Which statement best describes a network protocol? A tool that lets Macintosh and PC computers communicate with each other A universal translator that allows different kinds of computers to share data A language that all the computers on a network must use to communicate with each other *A standard set of rules and conventions that determine how computers communicate with each other across networks Which statement best describes the TCP/IP protocol stack? *A suite of protocols that allows communication across any set of interconnected networks. A suite of protocols that allows LANs to connect into WANs A suite of protocols that allows for data transmission across a multitude of networks A suite of protocols that defines rules for how packets of information are moved across a network A suite of protocols that allows different devices to be shared by interconnected networks Which statements best describe characteristics of TCP? (Choose four.) *TCP is a transport layer protocol. TCP provides e-mail support between remote hosts. Speed is more important than packet recovery. *TCP numbers segments so that the destination can reorder received segments. *A checksum technique verifies that data is not corrupted. TCP gives applications direct access to the packet service of the IP layer. *TCP provides a synchronization method between end systems to manage flows and adapt to congestion in the network. Which descriptions best define the differences between TCP and UDP? (Choose two.) TCP offers a minimal, non-guaranteed transport service. UDP offers accuracy rather than timeliness in packet delivery. TCP uses frames to carry information through the network. *TCP uses failed acknowledgments to alert the sender of lost segments. *UDP offers applications direct access to the packet service of the IP layer. UDP uses ping to transmit packets to measure average round-trip time between devices. Which applications are members of the TCP/IP protocol stack? (Choose two.) IP *FTP ICMP RFTP *TFTP Place the steps for establishing a connection with a peer system in the correct order. [DD] The sending application informs the operating system that a connection is to be initiated. One machine initiates a connection that is accepted by the other. Protocol software modules in the two operating systems communicate by sending messages across the network to verify that the transfer is authorized and that both sides are ready. After all synchronization has occurred, a connection is established. What are two encapsulation methods used at the transport layer? (Choose two.) Frame Packet *Segment Message *Datagram Bit stream Which terms identify a component of the TCP header? (Choose three.) Priority Time-To-Live *Window *Checksum Identification Type of service *Sequence number Which terms identify a component of the UDP header? (Choose two.) Priority *Length Window *Checksum Identification Type of service Sequence number Which statement best describes window size? The pixel size of the monitor that must be set ahead of time so data can be viewed The maximum size of the window that a software program can have and still process data rapidly The size of the window opening on a monitor that is not always equal to the monitor size *The number of bytes that can be transmitted while awaiting an acknowledgment Select the statement that correctly orders the steps to establish a TCP connection (Order below is only send portion of 3-way handshake). SYN=X, SYN=X ACK=Y+1, SYN=X ACK=Y+1 SYN=Y, SYN=Y ACK=X+1, SYN=Y ACK=X+1 *SYN=X, SYN=Y ACK=X+1, SYN=X+1 ACK=Y+1 SYN=X, SYN=Y ACK=Y+1, SYN=X+1 ACK=Y+1 SYN=Y, SYN=Y ACK=X+1, SYN=Y ACK=Y+1 Which statement best describes positive acknowledgment? Positive acknowledgment is the retransmission of guaranteed and reliable data. *Positive acknowledgment requires a recipient to send back an acknowledgment message when the recipient receives data. Positive acknowledgment ensures that if a sender does not receive a negative acknowledgment within a certain time, the sender retransmits the data. Positive acknowledgment guarantees if a recipient does not receive segments, a positive acknowledgment is sent to the sender indicating the sequence numbers of the missing segments. Which statements correctly identify a characteristic of a port? (Choose two.) *Port numbers identify the upper-layer protocol. Registered ports are assigned numbers below 1024. *Well-known ports are assigned numbers below 1024. Well-known ports are assigned numbers above 1024. Port numbers below 1024 are dynamically assigned. Which protocols reside at the Internet layer? (Choose three.) *IP NFS TCP *ARP *ICMP DCHP Which functions are true about IP? (Choose three.) *Routes datagrams *Forwards packets Guarantees delivery *Provides best-effort delivery Acknowledges receipt Which statement best describes the primary function of the TCP protocol? It adjusts its operation to maximize throughput. It manages data buffers and coordinates traffic. *It segments data and reassembles it transparently. It automates the configuration of computers that use TCP. It sequences packets to coordinate which data has been transmitted and received. Identify the primary function of the ICMP protocol. Edits IP packets Provides IP routing Discards corrupted IP packets *Generates IP control messages Reviews IP packet headers for fast switching What is the primary reason people use the ICMP protocol? *To test connectivity To test full duplexing To test VLAN initiation To test collision domains To provide LAN segmentation What is the purpose of an ARP? To start flow control To multiplex packets To adjust the window size To associate a MAC address with an IP address *To associate an IP address to a MAC address Which of the following statements best describes the role of RARP in an IP network? RARP resolves packet-to-frame fragmentation. RARP resolves an IP address to a MAC address. *RARP resolves a MAC address to an IP address. RARP resolves physical layer to data link layer addresses. RARP resolves Ethernet vendor numbers to the major IP network number. Which of the following are fields in an IP header? (Choose four.) *Flags Length *Protocol *Source IP address *Header checksum What is the purpose of the Protocol field in an IP header? *Indicates the type of transport protocol being carried in the packet. Detects processing errors introduced into the datagram Indicates particular quality of service needs from the network Identifies specific packets during reassembly of fragmented datagrams Identifies the number of hops and links over which the datagram can be routed Which functions best describe a communication protocol? (Choose two.) Quality of devices The speed of the media The length of the media *The format a message must take *The way in which computers exchange messages Which terms correctly correlate TCP/IP layers to OSI model layers? (Choose three.) *Internet; network Transport; network *Transport; transport Transport; physical-data link *Network access; physical-data link Network access; data link-transport Which of the following are primary duties of Layer 4 TCP? (Choose two.) *Provides end-to-end control Divides segments into packets *Acknowledges and sequences segments Ensures connectionless services to application protocols Switches or routes information based on the type of data packet Provides routing information to the connected neighboring hosts What TCP characteristics are not found in UDP? (Choose three.) *Connections *Flow control Data transfer Multiplexing Fragment-free *Reliable transfer Which application is supported by TCP? UDP SAN *FTP DHCP ICMP In TCP communication, when can a data transfer begin? *After all synchronization has occurred Before any synchronization has occurred After the hosts have an Internet connection Only after the connection between two hosts has been determined to be reliable How is data formatted at the transport layer? Bits Frames Packets *Segments Messages Which components are found in a TCP header? (Choose three.) Length *Window Protocol *Checksum *Destination port Which components are found in a UDP header? (Choose three.) *Length Window Protocol *Checksum *Destination port What flow control method does TCP implement? ACKs Sockets Buffering *Windowing Acknowledgments What does the ACK refer to in a TCP acknowledgment? TCP does not use acknowledgments. *The byte sequence number expected next. The byte sequence number expected next, plus 1. A number agreed upon at session establishment, which is then used by the receiver to indicate a successful exchange of packets. A sequential number beginning with 1 and incremented by 1 with each exchange that identifies this exchange of packets as being complete. In the first step of the three-way handshake, what will the ACK bit most likely be for both hosts? 1 *0 There is no ACK. A randomly generated number. The SEQ number of the remote host plus 1. Which description best defines port numbers? A method to configure diskless workstations *A numbering system to label the connections between devices A protocol that supports connectionless delivery A 32-bit number that uniquely identifies a network device A data structure that keeps track of the two IP addresses Which statements are characteristics of port numbers? (Choose two.) They represent a fairly complex coupling between IP and TCP. They keep track of the two IP addresses in the connection. They allow a workstation to broadcast using its Ethernet address. *The well-known ports cover the range of possible port numbers from 0 through 1023. *Communicating hosts specify an assigned application number in each data transmission. 'CCNA Self-Study 640-821 - Ch 7 - IP Addressing & Routing The IP address consists of two parts: _____ and _____ *Network portion and host portion Host portion and MAC portion Network portion and MAC portion Network portion and subnetwork portion How many bits are in an IP address? 16 *32 48 64 In a Class B address, which of the octets are the host address portion and are assigned locally? The first octet is assigned locally. The first and second octets are assigned locally. The second and third octets are assigned locally. *The third and fourth octets are assigned locally. The following address is of which class? 172.16.128.17 Class A *Class B Class C Class D Which of the following is true of a broadcast address? A broadcast address is an address that has all 0s in the octets of the host field. Any IP address in a network can be used as a broadcast address. *A broadcast address is an address that has all 1s in the octets of the host field. None of these answers. Which are private IP addresses? (Choose two.) *10.215.34.124 127.16.71.43 *172.17.10.10 225.200.15.10 What percentage of the total IPv4 address allocation is made up of Class A addresses? 25 *50 12.5 75 How many bits are there in an IPv6 address? 32 48 96 *128 Which of the following is a feature of CIDR? Classful addressing No supernetting More entries in the routing table *Route aggregation Originally, the Internet used how many levels of hierarchy addressing? *Two Three Four Five What is the function of a subnet mask? *To determine which part of the IP address is the network or subnetwork part and which part is the host part To conceal outside networks from subnetworks To determine the numbers of subnetworks that can be created To determine the numbers of hosts within a subnetwork What is the practical maximum number of host bits you can borrow from a Class A address for subnetting? 24 *22 16 14 Place the steps for determining a subnetwork number in order. [DD] Express the IP address in binary form. Express the subnet mask in binary form. Perform a logical AND operation on the IP address and the subnet mask. Express the subnet number as dotted-decimal notation. How many octets does a Class A network have in the host field? *3 2 1 4 Using 6 subnet bits, how many usable subnets are created? 58 60 *62 64 How many host addresses can be used in a Class C network? 253 *254 255 256 What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed to create a usable subnet for a Class C network? 2 4 *6 8 Which term best describes the operation of a router in evaluating available routes to a destination and establishing the preferred handling of a packet? Data linkage *Path determination SDLC interface protocol Frame Relay Which best describes a routed protocol? *Provides enough information in its network layer address to allow a packet to be forwarded from host to host Provides information necessary to translate data packets between to the next highest network layer protocols Allows routers to communicate with other routers to maintain and update address tables Allows routers to bind MAC and IP addresses together Which of the following statements about the path determination process is not correct? Routers evaluate the available paths to a destination. Routers establish the preferred handling of a packet. *Dynamic routing occurs when information is configured onto each router by the network administrator. Routing services use metrics and administrative distances when evaluating network paths. Which of the following contains routing information that helps a router in determining the routing path? IP address MAC address *Routing table Routed protocol Which of the following are goals for routing protocols? (Choose three.) *Optimization Flexibility *Simplicity *Rapid convergence Which of the following is not a routing metric? Delay Bandwidth *Length Load Which of the following is an example of an EGP? OSPF RIP *BGP EIGRP What are IGPs used for? To set up a compatibility infrastructure between networks To communicate between autonomous systems To transmit between nodes on a network *To deliver routing information within a single autonomous system Which best describes a distance vector protocol? *It determines the direction and distance to any network in the internetwork. Each router maintains a complex database of internetwork topology information. It is computationally rather complex. It is a method of routing that prevents loops and minimizes counting to infinity. Which of the following best describes link-state algorithms? They determine distance and direction to any link on the internetwork. They require minimal computation. *They recreate the exact topology of the entire internetwork. They use little network overhead and reduce overall traffic. In the IP RIP routing protocol, how often are periodic routing updates sent? *Every 30 seconds Every 60 seconds Every 90 seconds Only when the administrator directs the router to do so By default, which of the following is a routing metric used by IGRP? *Bandwidth and delay MTU size and load Hop count and delay Reliability and load Which of the following is not a basic component of EIGRP? *Routes only for IP DUAL finite-state machine Neighbor discovery and recovery Rapid convergence Which of the following is not a feature of OSPF? Has fast convergence Processes updates efficiently *Selects paths based on hop count Supports VLSM BGP is an example of which type of protocol? Interior Gateway Protocol Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol *Routing protocol Routed protocol Host addresses can be dynamically assigned. *True False What network address is reserved for loopback testing? 0.0.0.0 191.168.32.0 *127.0.0.0 172.16.0.0 What is the translation of private addresses to public addresses referred to as? DHCP DNS WINS *NAT Which is the IP protocol that is being implemented to increase the number of network addresses available? IPv2 IPv4 *IPv6 IPv8 How many host addresses are available if the IP subnet address is 206.15.8.0 /20? (Hint: CIDR) 4088 4098 *4094 4096 Which of the following is a benefit from subnetting a network? (Choose two.) *Better traffic control *Better performance Less device management Increased collisions Increased traffic What would the subnet mask be if four bits were borrowed to create a subnet mask for a Class B address? 255.255.224.0 255.255.255.0 *255.255.240.0 255.255.0.0 How many subnets could be created if six bits are borrowed? 8 16 32 *62 128 What are the key functions of a router? (Choose all that apply.) *Maintain routing tables *Use routing tables to determine the optimal path for network traffic *Determine where to forward a packet of data *Add necessary framing for an interface What happens in the third step of the encapsulation/de-encapsulation process? The network layer process examines the network layer header to determine the destination network. The router de-encapsulates and examines the frame to determine what type of network layer data is being carried. *The packet is re-encapsulated in the data link layer frame for the selected interface and transmitted. The router translates the frame into the network layer protocol associated with the outgoing interface and forwards to the next hop. What are some informational items contained in a routing table? (Choose two.) *Destination/next-hop associations *Routing metric Segment length Ticks Which of the following is not a routing protocol? RIP BGP *IP IGRP OSPF A router compares the destination network address to a routing table to select a path. *True False For a Cisco router, which of the following is used by the Cisco IOS to help measure delay? Cost *Bandwidth Hop Load What do routers use to exchange data? Advanced configurations *Routing protocols IP addresses Signals What do link-state protocols propagate when a network change occurs? Routing tables *LSA OSPF Metrics When using RlP, what is the hop-count limitation? 6 10 *15 No hop-count limitation Which of the following are benefits of IGRP when compared to RIP? (Choose two.) *Higher hop-count limitation Fewer metrics *Versatility for handling complex networks More updates sent when network changes occur Which of the following is not true about EIGRP? It is a Cisco proprietary protocol. It is based on the dual algorithm. It is considered a hybrid protocol. *It has more overhead than IGRP. Which is not true about OSPF? It supports VLSM. lt has virtually no hop-count limitation. *It sends updates to neighbors every 30 seconds. OSPF bases its metric on cost. 'CCNA Self-Study 640-821 - Ch 8 - Using WAN Technologies Which of the following best describes a WAN? *Connects LANs that are separated by a large geographic area Connects workstations, terminals, and other devices in a metropolitan area Connects a LAN within a large building Connects workstations, terminals, and other devices within a building Which of the following is an example of a circuit-switching protocol? *ISDN Frame Relay PPP HDLC Which of the following phrases describes a packet-switching environment? *A switching method in which users share common carrier resources for data transmission Allows connections to be initiated when transmission is needed and terminated when the transmission is completed Operates much like a normal dialup telephone call and is used extensively in telephone company networks A method of using high-speed data frames to multiplex between different layers of the OSI model A leased line is a _____ link that provides a single, pre-established WAN communication path from the customer to a remote network. *Point-to-point Point-to-multipoint Analog Digital How many DSOs can be bundled to get a DS1/T1 line? *24 28 48 64 Which of the following is a type of physical-layer multiplexing? (Choose all that apply.) *TDM *FDM *WDM Frame Relay Which protocol does PPP use for establishing and maintaining point-to-point connections? HDLC *LCP LAPD Cisco IETF Which is the default encapsulation type for serial interfaces on a Cisco router? PPP *HDLC Frame Relay X25 Which of the following statements pertaining to ISDN is false? The ISDN BRI offers two B channels and one D channel. The D channel, operating at 16 kbps, is primarily the signaling channel. The ISDN PRI offers 23 B channels and 1 D channel in North America. *The total bit rate of the ISDN BRI is 2.533 Mbps. Which of the following media is used by DSL to transport data? Existing coaxial cable TV lines *Existing twisted-pair telephone lines Existing Ethernet lines Wireless transmission What are the two basic types of DSL technology? Downstream DSL and Upstream DSL xDSL and yDSL *Asymmetric DSL and Symmetric DSL DSL Serialized DSL and Atonomized DSL Which of the following standards organizations and industries have contributed to the evolution of DSL? (Choose all that apply.) *ANSI *ITU-T IEEE IETF *ETSI Which of the following is not one of the benefits of DSL? DSL service can be added incrementally in any area. DSL is backward compatible with conventional analog voice. *ADSL stations can be up to 18,000 feet from the CO. DSL is an always-on technology. How does Frame Relay handle multiple conversations on the same physical connection? *Frame Relay multiplexes the circuits. Multiple conversations are not allowed. Frame Relay duplexes the conversation. Frame Relay uses wavelength division multiplexing. Which of the following is not true about ATM technology? It is capable of transferring voice, video, and data. ATM is used primarily in enterprise LAN backbones or WAN links. It is based on a cell-based architecture rather than on a frame-based architecture. *ATM cells are always a fixed length of 35 bytes, whereas the sizes of frames and packets vary. Name the family of very high-speed physical layer technologies that offers a series of data rates with special designations implemented at different transmission rates ranging from 51.84 Mbps to 40 Gbps. ADSL ATM *SONET ISDN Which of the following is true of analog modems? They allow data transfer between one computer and another over the PSTN. They convert analog signals to digital bit streams. They convert digital data to analog signals. *All of these answers are true. Which of the following cable standards allows a 56 kbps downstream data transmission rate? V.32 V.34 V.42 *V.90 Which of the following media are used by a cable modem to transport data? *Existing coaxial cable TV lines Existing twisted-pair telephone lines Existing Ethernet lines Existing TV antennas Which of the following best describes upstream? *Data flowing from the user to the network Data flowing from the network to the user Data flowing between networks Data flowing between routers Which of the following is an advantage of cable modem? The cabling infrastructure can be upgraded. Because cable modems exist in a shared-media structure, the more users who come on the network, the more bandwidth is available for each user. *Coaxial cable wiring offers greater bandwidth using broadband for more applications to the home network. Cable modems allow you to display data onto your cable connected television. ISDN is an example of a circuit-switched WAN technology. *True False Which of the following are true about a point-to-point link? (Choose three.) *It is a single, pre-established WAN communications path from the customer premises through a carrier network. *It is usually leased from a carrier and thus is often called a leased line. *It is generally priced based on bandwidth required and distance between the two connected points. The cost of leased line solutions is not significant when they connect many sites. Point-to-point links carry only IP traffic. Which of the following statements are true about bandwidth? (Choose three.) *Bandwidth refers to the capacity at which data can be transferred over the communication link. 12 DSOs can be bundled to get a DS1 line. *A T1 line is the same as a DS1 line. *28 DS1s can be bundled to get a DS3 line. Which of the following is not a type of multiplexing? TDM *ATM STM FDM Which of the following is not true regarding permanent virtual circuits (PVCs)? PVCs use permanently established connections. *Data communication across a PVC requires call setup and termination states. In PVCs, the DTE devices can begin transferring data whenever they are ready. A PVC works like a virtual leased line connection. What is the size of the ATM payload? *48 bytes 53 bytes 32 bytes 64 bytes What is the aggregate speed of the B channels for ISDN BRI? 16 kbps 64 kbps *128 kbps 144 kbps Which of the following is data-link encapsulation for a WAN? (Choose all that apply) *High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) FDDI *Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) IEEE 802.3 Ethernet *Frame Relay Which of the following is not a symmetrical standard for DSL? High Data Rate DSL (HDSL) ISDN DSL (IDSL) G.SHDSL *ADSL SDSL Which of the following protocols do not operate at Layer 2? PPP Ethernet ATM *IP DSL service can be added incrementally as more users subscribe. *True False Which was the first true worldwide standard for modems that allowed 2400 bits per second (bps) at 600 baud? V.12 V.42 V.32 V.90 *V.22bis Which of the following statements about cable modems are true? (Choose three.) *Cable modems use the same coaxial lines that transmit cable television. *Cable modem access provides speeds that are superior to T1 leased lines. *Cable modems provide a full-time connection. Cable modem installation is more complicated than installation of analog modems. 'CCNA Self-Study 640-821 - Ch 9 - Operating & Configuring Cisco IOS Devices When you configure Catalyst switches from the user interface that runs on the console or a remote terminal, the Cisco IOS software provides a CLI called the _____ . *EXEC LOGIN ENABLE CONSOLE What purpose does the Cisco IOS EXEC serve? Determines the switch IP address and default gateway Offers password security by encrypting Telnet passwords Provides a graphical user interface used to configure your switch *Interprets the commands you enter and carries out the corresponding operations What should you type to display a list of commands that begin with the letter “a” on a Catalyst switch? *a? a ? help a help a* What should you type to display the command syntax help so that you can see how to complete a command that begins with show? A show? *show ? help show help show* Which Cisco IOS command takes you from the Router> prompt to the Router# prompt on a Cisco router? user config *enable privilege When the information displayed on a Cisco router is more than one page in length, what should you do to display the next page? Type the command: more Press any key *Press the Spacebar Press the Down-Arrow key What does the "% Incomplete command" message mean on a Cisco router? You entered an invalid command parameter. *You did not enter all of the keywords or values required by the command. You are running the Cisco IOS Software from Flash memory, not from RAM. You did not enter enough characters for the router to recognize the command. What should you do if you receive a "% Ambiguous command" message on your Cisco router? Enter help and follow the instructions that appear on your screen. Enter a question mark (?) to display all of the commands or parameters that are available in this mode. *Reenter the command followed by a question mark (?) with no space between the command and the question mark. Reenter the command followed by a question mark (?) with a space between the command and the question mark. What does the Cisco IOS CLI do when you enter a command that is longer than allowed on a single line? The router truncates the command because commands longer than one line are not allowed. *The router automatically scrolls the line to the left and uses a dollar sign ($) to indicate that the beginning of the line is elsewhere. The router automatically moves the cursor to the next line and uses a caret (^) symbol to indicate that the beginning of the line is elsewhere. The router automatically shortens the command to the smallest number of characters that still make the character string unique yet allow it to fit on one line. What happens when you press the Tab key when working in the CLI? The current line is redisplayed. The cursor moves forward one word. The cursor moves to the end of the command line. *The parser completes a partially entered command if you entered enough characters to make the command unambiguous. Which tasks can you complete using the Cisco IOS command history feature? (Choose three.) *Recall commands Set the history buffer size to 356 *Set the command history buffer size Delete the contents of the command buffer *Display the contents of the command buffer Which of the following recall commands displays what is in history buffer beginning with the most recent command? (Choose two.) *Ctrl-n Ctrl-p Up arrow show history *Down arrow What happens when you start a Cisco IOS device that has no configuration in memory? The device uses its default configuration. *The device prompts you to enter a minimum configuration. The device obtains the configuration from its Flash memory. The device uses a dialog called enable to prompt for the configuration. Match each Cisco device startup action to its description: 1) POST routine 2) System startup routine 3) Application of software configuration [DD] A) The device performs hardware checking routines B) The device initiates the switch or router operating software C) The device establishes the details needed for network operation If a network administrator is supporting a remote device, what is the preferred type of connection or configuration to permit the administrator to configure the device remotely? Modem connection via the console port Console connection via the console port *Modem connection via the auxiliary port CD-ROM configuration with Cisco Fast Step What are the two primary Cisco IOS EXEC modes? User and root User and enable *User and privileged Normal and privileged How do you enter commands into the Cisco IOS CLI? Use a web interface to select commands from a list. *Type or paste entries within a console command mode. Use the management feature to indicate the next command to enter. Select commands from a menu provided by the Cisco IOS Software. How do you know which command mode you are using on a Cisco device? *The command mode is indicated with a distinctive prompt. The context-sensitive help feature indicates the command mode. The command mode is displayed after you enter each command. You see an error message if you are operating in the wrong command mode. Which Cisco IOS command lists the commands that are available in the privileged EXEC mode? *? dir list help Which EXEC mode allows you to configure and debug a Cisco router? User Enable Normal *Privileged How should you power up a Catalyst 2950 switch? Press the Reset button. Turn the power switch to on. Connect a Category 5 cable to another operating switch. *Attach the power cable plug to the switch power supply socket. When you start the switch or router, what should you see on the console output? Cisco IOS debug messages The Diagnostic Console menu *Cisco IOS Software output text A graphical picture showing the real-time LED's status Which LED display modes of operation are used on a Catalyst switch? (Choose three.) *Port status CPU utilization Switch throughput *Full-duplex support *Bandwidth utilization After a successful completion of the initial hardware testing, what do the port LEDs on a Catalyst switch do? The LEDs remain green after the tests are complete. The LEDs remain amber after the tests are complete. *The LEDs blink after the tests are complete and then turn off. The LEDs blink after the tests are complete and then turn green. When a Cisco router powers up, it performs a _____. System configuration Login and setup script Software diagnostic test *Power-On Self-Test (POST) Match stages 1-6 of a Catalyst switch LED POST to its description. A) All port LEDs are green. B) If no test fails, POST completes. C) If a test fails, its LED turns amber. D) System LED turns amber if any test fails. E) Each LED turns off after its test completes. F) On POST completion, LEDs blink and then turn off. [DD] A) All port LEDs are green. E) Each LED turns off after its test completes. C) If a test fails, its LED turns amber. D) System LED turns amber if any test fails. B) If no test fails, POST completes. F) On POST completion, LEDs blink and then turn off. If POST completes successfully on an unconfigured Catalyst 2950 switch, what happens next? The switch shuts down. The switch starts automatically. The Menu Console Logon screen appears. *You are prompted to enter the initial configuration for the switch. When the router starts up, which actions do the startup routines perform? (Choose three.) *Run POST. Execute setup mode. Make sure that the router can reach other routers on the same network. Enter privileged EXEC mode so the network administrator can configure it. *Find and load the Cisco IOS software that the router uses for its operating system. *Find and apply the configuration statements about router-specific attributes, protocol functions, and interface addresses. Why would you use the setup dialog on a Cisco device? To bring up privileged EXEC mode *To complete the initial configuration To enter complex protocol features in the router To create a test configuration file without saving it to NVRAM Which Cisco IOS command displays the configuration of the system hardware and software version information on a Cisco device? *show version show interfaces show startup-config show running-config After you configure the IP address on an interface, what command changes the state from administratively down to up? exit shutdown *no shutdown configure terminal Which Cisco IOS command displays the interface bandwidth on a Cisco switch? *show interfaces show bandwidth show interfaces bandwidth show bandwidth interfaces Match each data-link protocol status to the message that appears with the show interfaces command. 1) Operational 2) Manually disabled 3) Signaling problem 4) Physical connection problem [DD] A) Serial1 is up, line protocol is up D) Serial1 is administratively down, line protocol is down B) Serial 1 is up, line protocol is down C) Serial1 is down, line protocol is down What should you do if you make an error during the system configuration dialog on a cisco router? *Type Ctrl-c to abort the process and start over. Use the Page Up key to go back and correct the error. Type Ctrl-q to abort the process and return to the beginning. Use Ctrl-p or the Up Arrow to repeat the last command and make any corrections. Which Cisco IOS command assigns the device name? *hostname banner motd hostname interface description description interface description What must you configure to ensure that anyone accessing your router from the console port is prompted for a password? The password command The enable password command *The login command and the password command The login required command and the password command Which Cisco IOS command configures Ethernet port 1 on a fixed port router? Ethernet interface 1 *interface Ethernet 1 Ethernet interface 0/1 interface Ethernet 0/1 Which Cisco IOS command do you use to bring up an interface on a Cisco router that is "administratively down"? admin up shutdown *no shutdown no admin shutdown Which Cisco IOS command saves the current configuration to be the starting configuration of the router? configure memory configure terminal copy startup-config running-config *copy running-config startup-config What information does the show startup-config command display? Saved configuration in RAM Running configuration in RAM *Saved configuration in NVRAM Running configuration in NVRAM Which Cisco IOS command displays the current active configuration settings on a Catalyst switch? show version show interfaces show startup-configuration *show running-configuration Access to the Cisco IOS CLI is generally referred to as a/an _____ . Telnet session *EXEC session terminal session privileged session Cisco IOS Software offers _____ features to ensure dependable access to networked resources. Security *Reliability Scalability User interface When a Cisco device starts up, it runs _____ to check its hardware. Flash RAM *POST TFTP When a Catalyst switch or Cisco router starts up, what is the first operation performed? The device performs system startup routes. *The device performs hardware checking routines. The device attempts to locate other devices on the network. The device tries to find and apply software configuration settings. Upon initial installation of a Cisco switch or router, the network administrator typically configures the networking devices from a _____. CD-ROM TFTP server *Console terminal Modem connection If a network administrator is supporting a remote device, the preferred method is to use a modem connection to the device's _____ for remote configuration. LAN port Uplink port Console port *Auxiliary port Which access level allows a person to access all router commands and can be password protected to allow only authorized individuals to access the router? User EXEC level Setup EXEC level Enable EXEC level *Privileged EXEC level How do you instruct a Cisco device to parse and execute an entered command? Click the Send key. *Press the Enter key. Add a space at the end of the command. Wait 5 seconds after you enter a command. Which CLI prompt indicates that you are working in privileged EXEC mode? *Hostname# Hostname> Hostname-exec> Hostname-config Which command would you enter in the privileged EXEC mode to list the command options? *? init help login Match each step of the physical Catalyst switch startup process to its description: Step 1, Step 2, Step 3 [DD] C) Verify that all cable connections are secure, the terminal is connected to the console port, and the console terminal application is selected. A) Attach the power cable plug to the switch power supply socket. B) Observe the boot sequence, including the Cisco IOS Software output text on the console. What color is the Catalyst 2950 switch redundant power supply LED if the redundant power supply is plugged in but not functioning correctly? Green *Amber Flashing green Flashing amber During a Catalyst switch POST test, what is the result of the console port test failing? This is a fatal error, and you will not be able to access the switch. This is a nonfatal error, but one or more ports will not be operational. *This is a nonfatal error, and you will be able to Telnet to the management console. This is a nonfatal error, but the switch will not be able to restart itself automatically in case of a failure. What should you type to display a list of commands that begin with the letter c on a Catalyst switch? *c? c ? help c help c* What should be typed to see how to complete a command that begins with “config”? *config? config ? help config help config* Which configuration mode do you use to configure a particular port on a switch? User mode Global configuration mode *Interface configuration mode Controller configuration mode On a Catalyst switch, which output field indicates the MAC address that identifies the interface hardware when using the "show interfaces" command to display the status and statistics for the configured interfaces? MTU 1500 bytes Hardware is . . . 10BASE-T *Address is 0050.BD73.E2C1 802.1d STP State: Forwarding Which show command requires that you have privileged EXEC mode access? show ip show version *show running show interfaces How should you power up a Cisco router? Press the Reset button. *Turn the power switch to on. Connect the fiber cable to another router. Attach the power cable plug to the router power supply socket. What is the primary purpose of setup mode on a Cisco router? To display the current router configuration To complete hardware and interface testing *To bring up a minimal feature configuration To fully configure a Cisco router for IP routing Which statement best describes what the user EXEC mode commands allow you to configure on a Cisco router? *You cannot configure anything; the user mode commands are used to display information. The user EXEC mode allows you to perform global configuration tasks that affect the entire router. The user EXEC mode commands allow you to enter a secret password so you can configure the router. The user EXEC mode commands allow you to configure interfaces, subinterfaces, lines, and routers. Which Cisco IOS command is used to return to user EXEC mode from the privileged EXEC mode? exit quit *disable userexec Match each type of help available with the Cisco IOS CLI to its description: 1) Context-sensitive help 2) Console error messages 3) Command history buffer [DD] A) Provides a list of commands and the arguments associated with a specific command C) Identifies problems with router commands incorrectly entered so you can alter or correct B) Allows recall of long or complex commands or entries for reentry, review, or correction When you enter Cisco IOS commands on a router, which CLI editing key sequence redisplays a line? Ctrl-a Ctrl-f *Ctrl-r Ctrl-w What does the CLI editing key sequence Ctrl-x do? *Erases everything to the left of the cursor Redisplays a line Deletes a single character Moves the cursor to the end of the line Which Cisco IOS command sets the session command buffer size? set buffer show history history size *terminal history size Which command returns to more recent commands in the history buffer after recalling commands? *Ctrl-n Ctrl-p show history show terminal What information does the show running-config command provide on a Cisco router? *Current (running) configuration in RAM System hardware and names of configuration files Amount of NVRAM used to store the configuration Version of Cisco IOS software running on the router Which Cisco IOS command displays the configuration of the system hardware and the software version information? *show version show interfaces show startup-config show running-config Match each router prompt to its configuration mode: 1) line 2) router 3) interface 4) controller 5) subinterface [DD] B) Router(config-line)# D) Router(config-router)# A) Router(config-if)# E) Router(config-controller)# C) Router(config-subif)# If you enter a major command on a Cisco router, what happens? The router returns you to user EXEC mode. The router returns a list of possible commands. The router invokes a global configuration command. *The router switches you from one configuration mode to another. Which Cisco IOS command creates a message to be displayed upon router login? hostname *banner motd hostname interface description description interface description If both the enable secret and the enable password commands are configured on your router, how do you get to the # prompt? *Type in the configured enable secret password at the password prompt. Type in the configured enable password at the password prompt. Enter either the enable secret or the enable password command. Enter both the enable secret and the enable password commands. Which Cisco IOS command do you use to prevent a console session from timing out? no exec no timeout timeout 0 0 *exec-timeout 0 0 Which Cisco IOS command configures serial port in slot 0, port 1 on a modular router? serial 0/1 interface interface serial 0 1 *interface serial 0/1 serial 0 1 interface Which Cisco IOS command should you use to set the clock speed to 64 kbps on a serial interface on a Cisco router? clock rate 64 clock speed 64 *clock rate 64000 clock speed 64000 Which Cisco IOS commands correctly configure the IP address and subnet mask for Fast Ethernet interface 1 in slot 1? Router(config)#interface FastEthernet 1 1 Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 mask 255.255.255.0 Router(config)#interface FastEthernet 1/1 Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1/24 Router(config)#interface FastEthernet 1 1 Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 *Router(config)#interface FastEthernet 1/1 Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 What is a runt? An Ethernet frame that has been discarded because it has a CRC error An Ethernet frame that has been discarded because of an Ethernet collision *An Ethernet frame that has been discarded because it is smaller than the minimum Ethernet frame size An Ethernet frame that has been ignored by the interface because the interface hardware ran low on internal buffers A serial interface displays "Serial1 is up, line protocol is down". Which situations might cause this error? (Choose three.) *The clock rate has not been set. The interface has been manually disabled. No cable is attached to the serial interface. *No keepalives are coming in on the interface. *The encapsulation type on the other end is different than on your end. 'CCNA Self-Study 640-821 - Ch 10 - Managing Your Network Environment Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose two.) *CDP runs over the data link layer. CDP runs over the application layer. CDP automatically discovers all neighboring devices. *CDP automatically discovers neighboring CDP devices. CDP automatically discovers information about remote devices. Which network layer protocol must two CDP devices run to learn about each other? IP IPX AppleTalk *CDP is media and protocol independent A CDP device learns information about... All directly connected devices All directly connected IP devices *All directly connected CDP enabled devices All devices on the local network segment Which pieces of information does a CDP packet include? (Choose two.) Link speed *Port identifier *Capabilities list MAC address list Destination address Which command disables CDP on a specific interface? no cdp run *no cdp enable no cdp interface if-id interface if-id no cdp What does the command no cdp run do? *Disables CDP for the entire device Disables CDP for a specific interface Disables CDP for a specific time period Disables CDP for all interfaces of a specific type Which Cisco IOS command produces the same result as show cdp entry *? show cdp traffic show cdp neighbors show cdp interface all *show cdp neighbors detail If the letters R and B appear in the Capabilities column in the output of the show cdp neighbors command, it indicates that the specified device is acting as both a _____ and a _____ . Router; switch Repeater; switch *Router; source route bridge Repeater; source route bridge Which Cisco IOS commands display a holdtime value? (Choose three.) cdp enable *show cdp entry show cdp traffic *show cdp interface *show cdp neighbors interface if-id no cdp What information is included in the output of the command “show cdp traffic”? Remote port ID Holdtime value *Number of CDP packets sent Frequency at which CDP packets are sent Which CDP commands can you use to display the network layer address information of the CDP neighbor? (Choose two.) cdp enable *show cdp entry show cdp traffic *show cdp interface How often should you update your network map? Yearly Weekly Monthly *Whenever the network topology changes Which pieces of information should you include in a network map? (Choose three.) *Addressing *Rack layouts Serial numbers Performance data *Cable identification Which Cisco IOS command opens a Telnet connection from a Cisco router to a device with the IP address 10.1.1.1? open 10.1.1.1 *telnet 10.1.1.1 10.1.1.1 telnet 10.1.1.1 connect You use the show users command to display all active Telnet sessions and to determine if _____ . Telnet is enabled *The console is active The remote port is active Telnet is enabled on a remote device Which key sequence suspends a Telnet session? x 6 *x x Which actions continue a suspended Telnet session? (Choose two.) Pressing the Esc key *Pressing the Enter key Pressing x *Entering the resume command Entering the reconnect command Which commands end a Telnet session when entered on the remote device? (Choose two.) *exit *logout clear line disconnect Which command ends an incoming Telnet session from a remote device? exit logout *clear line disconnect Which pieces of information are displayed as the result of the ping command? (Choose three.) Failure rate Success rate *Median round-trip time *Average round-trip time *Minimum round-trip time What does the ping command verify? Bandwidth *Connectivity Functionality Bit error rate The router IOS is usually found in _____, and the startup-config file is usually found in _____. Flash memory; RAM RAM; Flash memory Flash memory; ROM *Flash memory; NVRAM NVRAM; Flash memory Which stage of router bootup occurs first? Load IOS *Load bootstrap Find configuration Load configuration Which router component is used primarily to contain the Cisco IOS Software image? RAM NVRAM *Flash memory Configuration register Which component tests the basic functionality of the router hardware and determines which components are present? *POST Bootstrap Mini-IOS ROM monitor When a Cisco router starts up, where does it look to find the Cisco IOS Software, by default, if the saved configuration file in NVRAM does not contain boot system commands? ROM RAM NVRAM *Flash memory During the boot process, which of the following describes where the device boots from if the boot field value is 0x2? Runs ROM monitor Loads IOS from ROM Loads first IOS file from Flash memory *Parses the NVRAM configuration Which Cisco IOS command displays the current value of the configuration register? show config *show version show startup-config show config-register If the configuration register value is 0x2100, what does the router do the next time it boots? Loads IOS from ROM Loads IOS from flash memory *Runs ROM monitor automatically Checks startup config for the boot system commands What is the Cisco IOS 12.0 IFS name for the running-config file? running-config RAM:running-config *system:running-config memory:running-config Which Cisco IOS commands, starting in Cisco IOS Release 12.0, delete the startup configuration? *erase nvram: delete nvram: *erase startup-config delete startup-config Which Cisco IOS command creates a backup copy of the IOS image file on a TFTP server? copy ios tftp copy tftp flash *copy flash tftp backup flash tftp Which command displays the size of the IOS image file in Flash memory? *show flash show flash size show file size flash show flash memory For which reasons would you copy configuration files from a TFTP, RCP, or FTP server to the running configuration or startup configuration of a router? (Choose three.) *To restore a backed-up configuration file *To use the configuration file for another router To identify the device to other devices on the network To institute a common security policy across the network *To load the same configuration commands onto all the routers in your network Which Cisco IOS command merges a configuration file from a TFTP server into the current configuration? copy startup running copy tftp startup-config copy running-config tftp *copy tftp running-config What does the copy running startup command do? *Copies the configuration in RAM to NVRAM Copies the configuration in NVRAM to RAM Merges the configuration in RAM with the configuration in NVRAM Downloads a configuration file from a TFTP server to running memory When adding new equipment to the network, what is the final step you should take? Determine the IP address to assign to each interface. Configure passwords for privileged EXEC mode for the device. Configure administrative access for the console, auxiliary, and vty interfaces. *Configure the new device with the appropriate configuration to meet the network requirements. When you make a hardware change to your router, should you power down the device? Never Always Does not matter *Depends on whether the Cisco device supports OIR (Online Insertion & Removal) Which type of Cisco IOS command should you use to create a snapshot of network conditions to troubleshoot problems with interfaces, media, or network performance? debug commands trace commands *show commands config commands Which type of Cisco IOS command should you use to view a process operating on a router or the network for troubleshooting purposes? trace commands show commands config commands *debug commands Which statements are true of CDP? (Choose two.) *It is a proprietary protocol. It is an open protocol standard. *It discovers information about connected Cisco devices. It discovers information about all devices on the network. When is CDP started? *When the Cisco device boots When you enter a debug command When you enter the command cdp enable When the configuration of the device changes How could you obtain CDP information about a nondirectly connected remote device? Use the command show cdp neighbors address. Use the command show cdp neighbors hostname. *Use Telnet to access a Cisco device connected to the target device. It is not possible to obtain CDP information about a remote device. Which pieces of information are included in a CDP update packet? (Choose two.) *Platform Routing updates *Device identifiers MAC address list Which command disables CDP on the device as a whole? no run cdp *no cdp run no cdp enable no cdp execute What does the command cdp enable do? Disables CDP on a specific interface Enables CDP on the device as a whole *Enables CDP on an individual interface Enables CDP on a specific type of interface Which Cisco IOS command produces the same result as show cdp neighbors detail? show cdp traffic *show cdp entry * show cdp neighbors show cdp interface all What keyword do you add to the “show cdp neighbors” command to obtain additional information in the output? full *detail verbose complete Which Cisco IOS command displays the frequency at which packets are sent? show cdp entry show cdp traffic *show cdp interface show cdp neighbors What information is included in the output of the command show cdp interface? Remote port ID Remote device ID *Encapsulation type Number of CDP packets sent Which command displays the device platform of a directly connected device? *show cdp entry show cdp traffic show cdp interface show cdp platform Which command displays CDP packets checksum errors? show cdp entry *show cdp traffic show cdp interface show cdp neighbors Which statements identify the primary uses of a network map? (Choose three.) *Modifies network design Creates a software inventory *Tracks changes to the topology *Troubleshoots network problems Tracks changes in protocol configurations Which Cisco IOS commands open a Telnet session from a router to a device with the host name switch123 and the IP address 10.1.1.2? (Choose two.) open 10.1.1.2 *telnet 10.1.1.2 open switch123 10.1.1.2 connect *telnet switch123 switch123 connect Which Cisco IOS command displays a list that includes all Telnet sessions currently connected to other devices? show logins show telnet *show sessions show connections What does an asterisk (*) mean in the output of the show sessions command? *Identifies the most recent Telnet session Identifies a Telnet session that has been suspended Identifies the Telnet session that has been idle longest Identifies a Telnet session that is experiencing a problem What does the command resume 3 do? Continues the last three suspended Telnet sessions Continues the most recently suspended Telnet session *Continues the suspended Telnet session with the session id of 3 Makes three attempts to resume the most recently suspended Telnet session What does the key sequence x do? Closes the current Telnet session *Suspends the current Telnet session Resumes the Telnet session with session ID 6 Suspends the Telnet session with session ID 6 When you have multiple active Telnet sessions and enter the command resume, which Telnet session is continued? *The most recent session. The session idle the longest. A session chosen at random. None—The resume command requires a session id number argument. At what level of the Cisco CLI do you execute the disconnect command? *Privileged EXEC mode Global configuration mode Interface configuration mode Virtual terminal (vty) configuration mode What does the command “clear line” do? Closes the current Telnet session Closes all active Telnet connections Reconnects the current Telnet session *Closes a Telnet session from a foreign host Which pieces of information are displayed as the result of the ping command? (Choose three.) *Packets lost Bit error rate Source address *Maximum round-trip time *Size of the ICMP echo packets Which Cisco IOS command would you use to display the path a packet takes to a specific destination? ping *trace show path show sessions Which stage during a Cisco router bootup occurs last? POST Find and load IOS Find and load bootstrap *Find and load configuration Which stage of the Cisco router bootup process verifies that all router components are operational? *POST Find IOS Find bootstrap Find configuration Which Cisco router component is used primarily to store the startup configuration? RAM ROM *NVRAM Flash memory Configuration register The _____ is a low-level operating system normally used for manufacturing testing and troubleshooting. POST Bootstrap Partial-IOS *ROM monitor (ROMMON) During the Cisco router boot process, what does the router do if the boot field value is 0x2? Runs ROM monitor Loads IOS from Flash memory Loads IOS subset from ROM *Checks the startup configuration file for boot system commands What happens if the router cannot find a valid startup configuration file in NVRAM during router bootup? *The router enters setup mode. The router attempts to restart. The router runs ROM monitor. The router performs a shutdown. On most routers, the IOS Software is loaded into _____ to run, but on some it is run directly from _____. RAM; NVRAM *RAM; Flash memory Flash memory; RAM NVRAM; Flash memory From the ROM monitor, which should you enter to determine the current value of the configuration register? *o v show version show config-register The command show startup-config displays the configuration in which location? ROM RAM *NVRAM Flash memory Which bits of the configuration register value make up the boot field? Lowest octet Highest octet *Lowest 4 bits Highest 4 bits Which Cisco IOS command downloads a copy of the IOS image file from a TFTP server? copy ios tftp *copy tftp flash copy flash tftp backup flash tftp Given the system image file c2500-js-1_120-3.bin, which part of the name indicates the platform? 1 js 120-3 *c2500 Which Cisco IOS command displays the amount of Flash memory available on your router? *show flash show nvram show memory show running-config Where is the IOS device's running configuration always stored? Flash *RAM NVRAM Bootflash Which Cisco IOS command merges a configuration file from NVRAM into the configuration in RAM? *copy startup running copy running-config tftp copy startup-config RAM copy NVRAM running-config What does the copy tftp startup command do? Copies the configuration in NVRAM to a TFTP server Downloads a configuration file from a TFTP server to RAM *Downloads a configuration file from a TFTP server to NVRAM Merges the configuration in RAM with the configuration file on a TFTP server When you copy a configuration from another source into RAM, what happens to the existing configuration? It is overwritten. It is retained in its current state. It is merged with the new configuration, with the existing configuration taking precedence. *It is merged with the new configuration, with the new configuration taking precedence. You should use debug commands to _____ problems, not to monitor normal network operation. Test Repair *Isolate Duplicate Why must you be careful when using debug commands? Because debug commands are destructive Because debug commands open up security holes Because debug commands prevent normal traffic processing *Because debug commands can negatively impact performance Which Cisco IOS command adds a time stamp to a debug or log message? timestamps debug debug timestamps *service timestamps service debug timestamps Which action can lead to software reload on a Cisco device? Disabling a debug privileged EXEC command on a heavily used production router *Enabling a debug privileged EXEC command on a heavily used production router Enabling a debug privileged EXEC command on a lightly used production router Disabling a debug privileged EXEC command on a lightly used production router Which Cisco IOS command enables a Telnet session to receive console messages? *terminal monitor terminal debug monitor terminal debug messages terminal console messages It is best to use debug commands during periods of _____ network traffic and _____ users. Lower; more *Lower; fewer Higher; more Higher; fewer