'CNA CCNA 1  Ch 1 - Intro to Networking
The connection to the Internet can be broken down into which of the following?
Physical connection
Logical connection
Applications
*All of these answers

What is the main circuit board of a computer?
PC subsystem
*Motherboard
Backplane
Computer memory

What are PCMCIA slots?
*Slots used primarily in laptops for expansion cards
Slots used as expansion slots primarily in PCs
Expansion slots for a NIC
Slots for certain specialized devices

What is a NIC?
A WAN adapter
*A printed circuit board that provides network communication
A card used only for Ethernet networks
A standardized data link layer address

Which of the following is/are the resource(s) needed before installing a NIC?
Knowledge of how the network card is configured
Knowledge of how to use the network card diagnostics
Capability to resolve hardware resource conflicts
*All of these answers

Which number system is based on powers of 2?
Octal
Hexadecimal
*Binary
ASCII

What is the largest decimal value that can be stored in 1 byte?
254
256
*255
257

What is the decimal number 151 in binary?
10100111
*10010111
10101011
10010011

What is the binary number 11011010 in decimal?
186
202
*218
222

What is the binary number 0010000100000000 in hexadecimal?
*0x2100
0x2142
0x0082
0x0012

What is the hexadecimal number 0x2101 in binary?
*0010 0001 0000 0001
0001 0000 0001 0010
0100 1000 0000 1000
1000 0000 1000 0100

Which of the following statements is true of ping?
The ping command is used to test a device's network connectivity.
Ping stands for packet Internet groper.
The ping 127.0.0.1 command is used to verify the operation of the TCP/IP stack and the NIC transmit/receive function.
*All of these answers.

'CNA CCNA 1  Ch 2 - Networking Fundamentals
What was the first type of microcomputer network to be implemented?
MAN
WAN
*LAN
PAN

Using modem connections, how many modems would it take to allow connections from ten individual computers within the same location?
One
Five
*Ten
Fifteen

What is the information that is "burned in" to a network interface card?
NIC
*MAC address
Hub
LAN

Which topology has all its nodes connected directly to one center point and has no other connections between nodes?
Bus
Ring
*Star
Mesh

What do TIA and EIA stand for?
Television Industry Association, Electronic Industries Association
*Telecommunications Industry Association, Electronic Industries Alliance
Telecommunications Industry Alliance, Electronic Industries Association
Telephonique International Association, Elegraphique Industries Alliance

LANs are designed to do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
*Operate within a limited geographic area
*Allow many users to access high-bandwidth media
Connect to the Internet
*Provide full-time connectivity to local services

Which of the following statements best describes a WAN?
*It connects LANs that are separated by a large geographic area.
It connects workstations, terminals, and other devices in a metropolitan area.
It connects LANs within a large building.
It connects workstations, terminals, and other devices within a building.

Which of the following statements correctly describes a MAN?
A MAN is a network that connects workstations, peripherals, terminals, and other devices in a single building.
A MAN is a network that serves users across a broad geographic area. It often uses transmission devices provided by common carriers.
*A MAN is a network that spans a metropolitan area such as a city or suburban area.
A MAN is a network that is interconnected by routers and other devices and that functions as a single network.

Which of the following is not one of the features of a SAN?
SANs enable concurrent access of disk or tape arrays, providing enhanced system performance.
SANs provide a reliable disaster recovery solution.
SANs are scalable.
*SANs minimize system and data availability.

What service offers secure and reliable connectivity over a shared public network infrastructure?
Internet
*Virtual private network
Virtual public network
WAN

What links a headquarters' internal network over a shared infrastructure to regional and remote offices and is only accessible by the enterprise customer's employees?
Access VPN
*Intranet VPN
Extranet VPN
Internet VPN

What part of a company's LAN is made available to select parties such as suppliers, customers, and partners?
The Internet
*The extranet
The intranet
The LAN

What is the movement of data through layers?
Wrapping
*Encapsulation
Traveling
Transmission

The OSI model has how many layers?
Four
Five
Six
*Seven

What is the OSI model?
A conceptual framework that specifies how information travels through networks
A model that describes how data makes its way from one application program to another throughout a network
A conceptual framework that specifies which network functions occur at each layer
*All of the above

Which of the following is the correct order of the OSI model layers?
1: Physical 2: Data link 3: Transport 4: Network 5: Presentation 6: Session 7: Application
*1: Physical 2: Data link 3: Network 4: Transport 5: Session 6: Presentation 7: Application
1: Physical 2: Data link 3: Network 4: Session 5: Transport 6: Application 7: Presentation
1: Physical 2: Network 3: Session 4: Data link 5: Transport 6: Application 7: Presentation

Which layer of the OSI model handles physical addressing, network topology, network access, and flow control?
The physical layer
*The data link layer
The transport layer
The network layer

Which of the following best defines encapsulation?
Segmenting data so that it flows uninterrupted through the network
Compressing data so that it moves faster
Moving data in groups so that it stays together
*Wrapping data in a particular protocol header

An e-mail message is sent from Host A to Host B on a LAN. Before this message can be sent, the data must be encapsulated. Which of the following best describes what happens after a packet is constructed?
The packet is transmitted along the medium.
*The packet is encapsulated into a frame.
The packet is segmented into frames.
The packet is converted to binary format.

In the TCP/IP model, which layer deals with reliability, flow control, and error correction?
Application
*Transport
Internet
Network access

Repeaters can provide a simple solution for what problem?
Too many types of incompatible equipment on the network
Too much traffic on a network
Too-slow convergence rates
*Too much distance between nodes or not enough cable

Which of the following is true of a bridge and its forwarding decisions?
Bridges operate at OSI Layer 2 and use IP addresses to make decisions.
Bridges operate at OSI Layer 3 and use IP addresses to make decisions.
*Bridges operate at OSI Layer 2 and use MAC addresses to make decisions.
Bridges operate at OSI Layer 3 and use MAC addresses to make decisions.

Which of the following is true of a switch's function?
Switches increase the size of collision domains.
*Switches combine the connectivity of a hub with the capability to filter or flood traffic based on the destination MAC address of the frame.
Switches combine the connectivity of a hub with the traffic direction of a router.
Switches perform Layer 4 path selection.

What does a router route?
Layer 1 bits
Layer 2 frames
*Layer 3 packets
Layer 4 segments

What is/are the function(s) of a AAA server? (Select all that apply.)
To ensure that only authenticated users can get into the network
To ensure that the users are allowed access to only the resources they need
To ensure that records are kept of everything the authentic users do after they are allowed entry
*All of these answers.

'CNA CCNA 1  Ch 3 - Networking Media
Match the definitions: 1) Neutrons 2) Protons 3) Electrons 
[DD]
Particles that have no charge (neutral)
Particles that have a positive charge
Particles that have a negative charge

Which of the following regarding electricity is untrue?
Opposite charges react to each other with a force that causes them to be attracted to each other.
Like charges react to each other with a force that causes them to repel each other.
In the case of opposite and like charges, the force increases as the charges move closer to each other.
*None of these answers

Match the following to their respective units of measurement: 1) Resistance 2) Current 3) Voltage
[DD]
Ohm
Ampere
Volt

Electrons flow in _____ loops called _____.
Open; voltage
Closed; voltage
Open; circuits
*Closed; circuits

What is the maximum cable length for STP?
100 feet
150 feet
10 meters
*100 meters

How many pairs of wires make up a UTP cable?
2
*4
6
8

Which connector does UTP use?
STP
BNC
*RJ-45
RJ-69

What is an advantage that coaxial cable has over STP or UTP?
It is capable of achieving 10 Mbps to 100 Mbps.
It is inexpensive.
*It can run for a longer distance unboosted.
None of these answers

What does the twisting of the wires do in a twisted-pair cable?
It makes it thinner.
It makes it less expensive.
*It reduces noise problems.
It allows six pairs to fit in the space of four pairs.

What is the importance of the EIA/TIA standards? Select all that apply.
They provide a framework for the implementation of the OSI reference model.
*They provide guidelines for manufacturers to follow to ensure compatibility.
*They provide the minimum media requirements for multiproduct and multivendor environments.
None of these answers.

A fiber-optic cable transmits multiple streams of LED-generated light.
*Multimode
Multichannel
Multiphase
None of these answers

What is one advantage of using fiber optic cable in networks?
It is inexpensive.
It is easy to install.
It is an industry standard and is available at any electronics store.
*It is capable of higher data rates than either coaxial or twisted-pair cable

'CNA CCNA 1  Ch 4 - Cable Testing
Which of the following is a characteristic of fiber-optic cable?
It uses an intense incandescent light.
Its core is made of highly reflective Kevlar.
It relies on total internal cancellation to guide light for long distances.
*It is capable of higher data rates than other types of networking media.

Which of the following describes attenuation?
*A loss of signal strength
An increase in signal amplitude
The delay experienced during signal travel
The time it takes a signal to reach its destination

Which of the following is a cause of crosstalk?
*Poorly terminated network cabling
The loss of a signal's ground reference
AC line noise coming from a nearby video monitor or hard disk drive
FM radio signals, TV signals, various types of office equipment

Which of the following are tests specified by the TIA/EIA-B standard for copper cable? (Select all that apply.)
Signal harmonics
Conductive response
*Wire map
Signal absorption
*Insertion loss
*Propagation delay

What are three distinct kinds of crosstalk?
*NEXT
*FEXT
ANEXT
SPNEXT
*PSNEXT

In designing a network, what would be used to calculate an optical link loss budget?
Amount of data lost during impedence mismatch events
Amount of attenuation signal loss that can occur before data becomes corrupt
*Amount of signal power loss that can occur without dropping below receiver requirements
Total amount of data that can be lost before regeneration of signal

Which numbering system uses 2 as its base?
Octal
Hexidecimal
*Binary
ASCII

Which of the following describes a common function of a cable-testing device?
TDR tests and detects faulty virtual circuits.
TDR tests provide information about the location of a cabling run.
Wire maps provide information about the distance to a cabling fault.
*Cable testers can detect open circuits in existing cabling installations.

Which electronic device is used to view electrical signals such as voltage waves and pulses?
Multimeter
Autocollimator
Spectrum analyzer
*Oscilloscope
Spectroscope
Spectophotometer

Near-end crosstalk is...
*Crosstalk signals measured from the same end of the link
Crosstalk occurring further away from the transmitter
The measured cumulative effect of NEXT
A decrease in signal amplitude over the length of a link
Comm. link impedance discontinuities and signal attenuation
A way to ensure no open or short circuits exist in the cable

Far-end crosstalk is...
Crosstalk signals measured from the same end of the link
*Crosstalk occurring further away from the transmitter
The measured cumulative effect of NEXT
A decrease in signal amplitude over the length of a link
Comm. link impedance discontinuities and signal attenuation
A way to ensure no open or short circuits exist in the cable

Power sum near-end is...
Crosstalk signals measured from the same end of the link
Crosstalk occurring further away from the transmitter
*The measured cumulative effect of NEXT
A decrease in signal amplitude over the length of a link
Comm. link impedance discontinuities and signal attenuation
A way to ensure no open or short circuits exist in the cable

Attenuation is...
Crosstalk signals measured from the same end of the link
Crosstalk occurring further away from the transmitter
The measured cumulative effect of NEXT
*A decrease in signal amplitude over the length of a link
Comm. link impedance discontinuities and signal attenuation
A way to ensure no open or short circuits exist in the cable

Insertion loss is...
Crosstalk signals measured from the same end of the link
Crosstalk occurring further away from the transmitter
The measured cumulative effect of NEXT
A decrease in signal amplitude over the length of a link
*Comm. link impedance discontinuities and signal attenuation
A way to ensure no open or short circuits exist in the cable

A wire map is...
Crosstalk signals measured from the same end of the link
Crosstalk occurring further away from the transmitter
The measured cumulative effect of NEXT
A decrease in signal amplitude over the length of a link
Comm. link impedance discontinuities and signal attenuation
*A way to ensure no open or short circuits exist in the cable

'CNA CCNA 1  Ch 5 - Cabling LANs & WANs
Which of the following is an 802.3u specification?
10BASE-F
10BASE-T
*100BASE-TX
1000BASE-CX

Which of the following is the most appropriate choice for Ethernet connectivity?
Use 10-Mbps Ethernet as a connection between server and LAN.
Use Gigabit Ethernet as the link at the user level to provide good performance.
*Use FE as link between user level and network devices to support the combined traffic from each segment on access link.
None of these answers.

Which standards body created the cables and connector specification used to support Ethernet implementation?
ISO
ANSI
*EIA/TIA
IETF

Which of the following statements does not correctly describe a media connector?
*An RJ-45 connector is an 8-pin connector used mainly for terminating coaxial cable.
An AUI is a 15-pin connector used between a NIC and an Ethernet cable.
The GBIC is a transceiver that converts serial electric currents to optical signals, and vice versa.
None of these answers

For which of the following would you not need to provide a crossover cable?
Connecting uplinks between switches
*Connecting routers to switches
Connecting hubs to switches
None of these answers

Which technology is not a type of wireless communication?
Cellular
*Broadband
Infrared
Spread spectrum

Which of the following is not a WAN implementation?
DSL
ISDN
Frame Relay
*Ethernet

What type of data-transmission method is used by a WAN?
Parallel
*Serial
Single
None of these answers

What best describes a DCE?
User device at the end of a network
Equipment that serves as the data source or destination
Physical devices such as protocol translators and multiplexers
*Devices that make up the network end of the user-to-network interface

Which of the following media is used to interconnect the ISDN BRI port to the service-provider device?
*CAT 5 UTP straight-through
CAT 5 UTP crossover
Coaxial
Fiber-optic

What type of connector is used for DSL connection?
RJ-45
*RJ-11
F
DB-9

What type of connector is used to connect a router and a cable system?
RJ-45
RJ-11
*F
AUI

What type of cable is used to connect a terminal and a console port?
Straight-through
*Rollover
Crossover
Coaxial

'CNA CCNA 1  Ch 6 - Ethernet Fundamentals
Which of the following is not one of the recognized IEEE sublayers?
Media Access Control
*Data Link Control
Logical Link Control
None of these answers

The recognized IEEE 802.3 sublayers are concerned with what layers of the OSI reference model?
2 and 3
*1 and 2
3 and 4
1 and 3

The LLC, as a sublayer, participates in which process?
Encryption
*Encapsulation
Framing
All of these answers

What do the first six hexadecimal numbers in a MAC address represent?
Interface serial number
*Organizational unique identifier
Interface unique identifier
None of these answers

MAC addresses are how many bits in length?
12
24
*48
64

What is the name of the access method used in Ethernet that explains how Ethernet works?
TCP/IP
*CSMA/CD
CMDA/CS
CSMA/CA

Where does the MAC address reside?
Transceiver
Computer BIOS
*NIC
CMOS

Which of the following statements best describes communication between two devices on a LAN?
*The source device encapsulates data in a frame with the MAC address of the destination device and then transmits it.  Everyone on the LAN sees it, but the devices with nonmatching addresses otherwise ignore the frame.
The source encapsulates the data and places a destination MAC address in the frame.  It puts the frame on the LAN, where only the device with the matching address can check the address field.
The destination device encapsulates data in a frame with the MAC address of the source device and puts it on the LAN.  The device with the matching address removes the frame.
Each device on the LAN receives the frame and passes it up to the computer, where software decides whether to keep or to discard the frame.

Which functions are associated with framing?
Identifies which computers are communicating with one another
Signals when communication between individual computers begins and when it ends
Flags corrupted frames
*All of these answers

Media Access Control refers to what?
The state in which a NIC has captured the networking medium and is ready to transmit
Rules that govern media capture and release
*Rules that determine which computer on a shared-medium environment is allowed to transmit the data
A formal byte sequence that has been transmitted.

Which best describes a CSMA/CD network?
*One node's transmission traverses the entire network and is received and examined by every node.
Signals are sent directly to the destination if the source knows both the MAC and IP addresses.
One node's transmission goes to the nearest router, which sends it directly to the destination.
Signals always are sent in broadcast mode.

In an Ethernet or IEEE 802.3 LAN, when do collisions occur?
When one node places a packet on a network without informing the other nodes
*When two stations listen for traffic, hear none, and transmit simultaneously
When two network nodes send packets to a node that no longer is broadcasting
When jitter is detected and traffic is disrupted during normal transmission.

Which is an important Layer 2 data link layer function?
Logical link control
Addressing
Media access control
*All of these answers

Which is true of a deterministic MAC protocol?
It defines collisions and specifies what to do about them.
It allows the hub to determine the number of users active at any one time.
*It allows hosts to "take turns" sending data.
It allows the use of a "talking stick" by network administrators to control the media access of any users considered "troublemakers."

'CNA CCNA 1  Ch 7 - Ethernet Technologies
What is the maximum distance for thick Ethernet without using a repeater?
185 m (606.95 ft.)
250 m (820.2 ft.)
*500 m (1640.4 ft.)
800 m (2624.64 ft.)

10-Mbps Ethernet operates within the timing limits offered by a series of no more than (#) segments separated by no more than (#) repeaters.
Three, two
Four, three
*Five, four
Six, five

Fast Ethernet supports up to what transfer rate?
5 Mbps
10 Mbps
*100 Mbps
1000 Mbps

Identify two Gigabit Ethernet over fiber cable specifications.
1000BASE-TX
100BASE-FX
*1000BASE-SX
*1000BASE-LX
1000BASE-X

What is the transmission medium for 1000BASE-SX?
Long-wave laser over single-mode and multimode fiber
Category 5 UTP copper wiring
Balanced, shielded, 150-ohm, two-pair STP copper cable
*Short-wave laser over multimode fiber

4D-PAM5 encoding method is used in which of the following Gigabit Ethernet?
1000BASE-LX
1000BASE-SX
*1000BASE-T
1000BASE-CX

What is the IEEE standard for 10-Gb Ethernet?
802.3z
802.3u
*802.3ae
803.3

What happens when 1000BASE-T sends and receives data in a full-duplex mode on the same conductor?
*A permanent collision on the wire
Increased symbol decoding
The addition of two hops to any transmission
Increased signal-to-noise ratio

What is the maximum transmission distance supported by 10 Gigabit Ethernet?
82 m
240 m
10 km
*40 km
82 km
Unlimited

'CNA CCNA 1  Ch 8 - Ethernet Switching
Which of the following is not a feature of microsegmentation?
It enables dedicated access.
It supports multiple conversations at any given time.
It increases the capacity for each workstation connected to the network.
*It increases collisions.

Which of the following is used by LAN switches for making the forwarding decision?
IP address
*MAC address
Network address
Host address

Which of the following is a feature of full-duplex transmission?
It offers two 10-Mbps to 1-Gbps data-transmission paths.
It doubles bandwidth between nodes.
It provides collision-free transmission.
*All of these answers.

What are the three common types of switching methods?
*Store-and-forward, cut-through, and fragment-free
Store-and-save, cut-through, fragment-defragment
Store-and-forward, cut-and-merge, fragment-free
Store-and-filter, cut-mend, fragment-decipher

The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) allows which of the following?
Bridges to communicate Layer 3 information
*A redundant Layer 2 network path without suffering the effects of loops in the network
Static network paths for loop prevention
None of these answers

Which of the following is not one of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) port states?
Blocking
Learning
Listening
*Transmitting

Which of the following is true concerning a bridge and its forwarding decisions?
Bridges operate at OSI Layer 2 and use IP addresses to make decisions.
Bridges operate at OSI Layer 3 and use IP addresses to make decisions.
*Bridges operate at OSI Layer 2 and use MAC addresses to make decisions.
Bridges operate at OSI Layer 3 and use MAC addresses to make decisions.

Which of the following is a feature of bridges?
*They operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model.
*They are more intelligent than hubs.
They do not make any forwarding decisions.
*They build and maintain address tables.

Which of the following statements is true of microsegmentation?
*Each workstation gets its own dedicated segment through the network.
All the workstations are grouped as one segment.
Microsegmentation increases the number of collisions on a network.
None of these answers.

Which of the following is true for LAN switches?
They repair network fragments known as microsegments.
*They are very high-speed multiport bridges.
Lower bandwidth makes up for higher latency.
They require new network interface cards on attached hosts.

What is a network area called where two or more Ethernet stations are separated by a bridge or Layer 2 switch, in which data frames originate and collide?
*Collision domain
Network domain
Broadcast domain
Network segment

Using repeaters does which of the following to the collision domain?
Reduces
Has no effect on
*Extends
None of these answers

The process of using the complex networking devices such as bridges, switches, and routers to break up the collision domains is known as which of the following?
Sectioning
*Segmentation
Collision domain reduction
None of these answers

'CNA CCNA 1  Ch 9 - TCP/IP Protocol Suite & IP Addressing
What transport layer protocol does TFTP use?
TCP
IP
*UDP
TFTP

Which of the following is a basic service of the transport layer?
Provides reliability by using sequence numbers and acknowledgments
Segments upper-layer application data
Establishes end-to-end operations
*All of the above

Which of the following protocols operate at the TCP/IP Internet layer?
IP
ICMP
ARP
*All of these answers

What is the first thing that happens when a DHCP client boots?
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPBOOT
*DHCPDISCOVER
None of these answers

How does the Network layer forward packets from the source to the destination?
*By using a routing table
By using ARP responses
By referring to a name server
By referring to the bridge

If a device doesn't know the MAC address of a device on an adjacent network, it sends an ARP request to what?
The default gateway
The closest router
The router interface
*All of these answers

What are the two parts of an IP address?
*Network address and host address
Network address and MAC address
Host address and MAC address
MAC address and subnet mask

What Internet protocol is used to map a known IP address to an unknown MAC address?
UDP
ICMP
*ARP
RARP

Which of the following initiates an ARP request?
A device that can locate the destination IP address in its ARP table
The RARP server in response to a malfunctioning device
A diskless workstation with an empty cache
*A device that cannot locate the destination MAC address in its ARP table.

Which of the following best describes an ARP table?
A way to reduce network traffic by providing lists of shortcuts and routes to common destinations
A way to route data within networks that are divided into subnetworks
A protocol that performs an application layer conversion of information from one stack to another
*A section of RAM on each device that maps IP addresses to MAC addresses

Which of the following best describes the ARP reply?
*A device sends its MAC address to a source in response to an ARP request
The shortest path between the source and the destination
The updating of ARP tables through intercepting and reading messages traveling on the network
The method of finding IP addresses based on the MAC address, used primarily by RARP servers

Why are current and updated ARP tables important?
For testing links in the network
*For limiting the number of broadcasts
For reducing network administrator maintenance time
For resolving addressing conflicts

Which of the following best describes TCP/IP?
*It is a suite of protocols that can be used to communicate across any set of interconnected networks.
It is a suite of protocols that allows LANs to connect to WANs.
It is a suite of protocols that allows for data transmission across a multitude of networks.
It is a suite of protocols that allows different devices to be shared by interconnected networks.

Which of the following does not describe the TCP/IP protocol stack?
*It maps closely to the OSI reference model's upper layers.
It supports all standard physical and data link protocols.
It transfers information in a sequence of datagrams.
It reassembles datagrams into complete messages at the receiving location.

The TCP/IP protocol suite has specifications for which layers of the OSI model?
1 through 3
1 through 4 and 7
*1 through 2, 3, 4, and 5 through 7
1, 3, and 4

Which of the following is not a function of the network layer?
RARP determines network addresses when data link layer addresses are known.
ICMP provides control and messaging capabilities.
ARP determines the data link layer address for known IP addresses.
*UDP provides connectionless exchange of datagrams without acknowledgments.

Which of the following is one of the protocols found at the transport layer?
UCP
*UDP
TDP
TDC

'CNA CCNA 1  Ch 10 - Routing Fundamentals & Subnets
How many bits are in an IP address?
16
*32
64
None of these answers

What is the maximum value of each octet in an IP address?
28
*255
256
None of these answers

The network number plays what part in an IP address?
*It specifies the network to which the host belongs.
It specifies the identity of the computer on the network.
It specifies which node on the subnetwork is being addressed.
It specifies which networks the device can communicate with.

The host number plays what part in an IP address?
*It designates the identity of the host on the network.
It designates which node on the subnetwork is being addressed.
It designates the network to which the host belongs.
It designates which hosts the device can communicate with.

What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 101101?
32
35
*45
44

Convert the decimal number 192.5.34.11 to its binary form.
*11000000.00000101.00100010.00001011
11000101.01010111.00011000.10111000
01001011.10010011.00111001.00110111
11000000.00001010.01000010.00001011

Convert the binary IP address 11000000.00000101.00100010.00001011 to its decimal form.
190.4.34.11
192.4.34.10
192.4.32.11
*None of these answers

What portion of the Class B address 154.19.2.7 is the network address?
154
*154.19
154.19.2
154.19.2.7

What portion of the IP address 129.219.51.18 represents the network?
*129.219
129
14.1
1

Which of the following addresses is an example of a broadcast address on the network 123.10.0.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0?
123.255.255.255
*123.10.255.255
123.13.0.0
123.1.1.1

How many host addresses can be used in a Class C network?
253
*254
255
256

What is the minimum number of bits that can be borrowed to form a subnet?
1
*2
4
None of these answers

What is the primary reason for using subnets?
To reduce the size of the collision domain
To increase the number of host addresses
*To reduce the size of the broadcast domain
None of the above

How many bits are in a subnet mask?
16
*32
64
None of these answers

Performing the Boolean function as a router would on the IP addresses 121.8.2.5 and 255.0.0.0, what is the network/subnetwork address?
121.8.1.0
121.8.0.0
121.8.2.0
*None of these answers

With a Class C address of 197.15.22.31 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, how many bits have been borrowed to create a subnet?
1
2
*3
None of these answers

Performing the Boolean function as a router would on the IP addresses 172.16.2.120 and 255.255.255.0, what is the subnet address?
172.0.0.0
172.16.0.0
*172.16.2.0
None of these answers

Which of the following best describes one function of Layer 3, the network layer, in the OSI model?
It is responsible for reliable network communication between nodes.
It is concerned with physical addressing and network topology.
*It determines which is the best path for traffic to take through the network.
It manages data exchange between presentation layer entities.

What function allows routers to evaluate available routes to a destination and to establish the preferred handling of a packet?
Data linkage
*Path determination
SDLC interface protocol
Frame Relay

How does the network layer forward packets from the source to the destination?
*By using an IP routing table
By using ARP responses
By referring to a name server
By referring to the bridge

What are the two parts of a network layer address that routers use to forward traffic through a network?
*Network address and host address
Network address and MAC address
Host address and MAC address
MAC address and subnet mask

'CNA CCNA 1  Ch 11 - TCP-IP Transport & Application Layers
When conversing with an individual whose primary language is different than yours, you might need to repeat your words and speak more slowly. Repeating your words can be compared to _____, and the need to speak slowly can be compared to the ____ functions of the transport layer.
*Reliability; flow control
Flow control; reliability
Transport; acknowledgment
Flow control; transport

The following characteristics describe what TCP/IP protocol: connection-oriented; resends anything not received; divides outgoing messages into segments?
IPX
*TCP
UDP
SPS

What does the window field in a TCP segment indicate?
Number of 32-bit words in the header
Number of the called port
Number used to ensure correct sequencing of the arriving data
*Number of octets that the device is willing to accept

What transport protocol exchanges datagrams without acknowledgments or guaranteed delivery?
*UDP
TCP
IRQ
LLC

What do TCP and UDP use to keep track of different conversations crossing a network at the same time?
*Port numbers
IP addresses
MAC addresses
Route numbers

How does TCP synchronize a connection between the source and the destination before data transmission?
Two-way handshake
*Three-way handshake
Four-way handshake
Holton functions

Which range of port numbers is unregulated?
Below 255
Between 256 and 512
Between 256 and 1023
*Above 1023

With TCP transmission, what occurs if a segment is not acknowledged in a certain time period?
UDP takes over the transmission.
The virtual circuit is terminated.
Nothing happens.
*Retransmission occurs.

Which best describes flow control?
A method of managing limited bandwidth
A method of connecting two hosts synchronously
*A method of preventing buffer overrun
A method of checking data for viruses before transmission

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the TCP/IP protocol stack?
Maps closely to the OSI reference model's upper layers
Supports all standard physical and data link protocols
*Transfers information from one host to another in a sequence of datagrams
Reassembles datagrams into complete messages at the receiving location

Which of the following is one of the protocols found in the transport layer?
UCP
*UDP
TDP
TDC

What is the purpose of port numbers?
*They keep track of different upper-layer conversations crossing the network at the same time.
Source systems use them to keep a session organized.
End systems use them to assign end users dynamically to a particular session, depending on their application use.
Source systems generate them to predict destination addresses.

Why are TCP three-way handshake/open connections used? Select all that apply.
*To ensure that lost data can be recovered if problems occur later
*To determine how much data the receiving station can accept at one time
To provide efficient use of bandwidth by users
To change binary ping responses into information in the upper layers

What does a dynamic TCP window field do?
It makes the window larger so that more data can come through at once, which results in more efficient use of bandwidth.
The window size slides to each section of the datagram to receive data, which results in more efficient use of bandwidth.
*It allows the window size to be negotiated dynamically during the TCP session, which results in more efficient use of bandwidth.
It limits the incoming data so that each segment must be sent one by one, which is an inefficient use of bandwidth.

UDP segments use what protocols to provide reliability?
Network layer protocols
*Application layer protocols
Internet protocols
Transmission control protocols

A network redirector enables data to travel…
Only to a network print server
Only to a network file server
In a single direction
*None of these answers

Which of the following is an example of a client/server application?
*E-mail
A spreadsheet
A NIC
Hard-drive utilities

The client side of the client/server relationship is which of the following?
Located on the remote computer
*The requestor of services
The most important
Always located on the server

Which of the following best describes the Domain Name System (DNS)?
*It translates the name of a network node into a numeric address.
It is the same as the name you give your primary server.
It represents the specific location where your LAN is located.
It is an IP address used to represent a print server.

.com is the domain typically assigned to which of the following?
Client machines
Customers
Network provider companies
*Corporations

During a Telnet connection, the remote computer is responsible for which of the following?
Nothing
*Processing
Client-side Telnet application
Client-side printing

At which three layers of the OSI model does Telnet primarily work?
Application layer, session layer, transport layer
Presentation layer, session layer, transport layer
Data link layer, transport layer, presentation layer
*Application layer, presentation layer, session layer

The typical default settings for anonymous FTP sessions use _____ as the login ID and _____ as the password.
*Anonymous; the user e-mail address
The user e-mail address; FTP
FTP; FTP
Guest; anonymous

Instead of working with specific application programs, redirectors work with which of the following?
*Computer operating systems
Spreadsheets
E-mail
Web browsers

'CNA CCNA 2  Ch 1 - WANs & Routers
Which of the following best describes a WAN?
*Connects LANs that are separated by a large geographic area
Connects workstations, terminals, and other devices in a metropolitan area
Connects LANs within a large building
Connects workstations, terminals, and other devices within a building

How do WANs differ from LANs?
*WANs provide access over serial interfaces operating at lower speeds than LAN interfaces.
WANs provide high-speed multiple access services.
WANs typically exist in small geographic areas.
WANs use tokens to regulate network traffic.

Which of the following are examples of WAN technologies?
Token Ring, ARCNet
*Frame Relay, ISDN
Star, Banyan VINES
CSU/DSU, ARCView

Which layers of the OSI model do WAN standards describe?
Data Link and Network
Data Link and Presentation
Physical and Application
*Physical and Data Link

Which best describes data circuit-terminating equipment (DCE)?
Consists of the user device at the end of a network
Serves as the data source or destination
Consists of physical devices such as protocol translators and multiplexers
*A device at the end of a WAN connection that provides a clocking signal used to synchronize DCE and DTE data transmissions.

Which of the following components provides an interface for voice-grade services and channel service units/digital service units (CSUs/DSUs) that interface T1/E1 services?
Switches
Routers
*Modems
Communication servers

Which of the following concentrates the dial-in and dial-out user connections?
Switches
Routers
Modems
*Communication servers

Some WAN physical and data link layer standards are:
EIA/TIA-232
PPP
Frame Relay
*All of these answers

Match the definitions with the terms:  RAM/DRAM, NVRAM, ROM, Flash Memory, Interface
[DD]
Volatile memory that can be read and written to by the micro-processor
RAM that retains its contents when a unit is powered off
Nonvolatile memory that can be read but not written to by a microprocessor
Nonvolatile memory that can be electrically erased and reprogrammed so software images can be stored, booted, and rewritten as necessary.
A connection between two systems or devices

Any internetwork will probably include the following:
Consistent end-to-end addressing
Addresses that represent network topologies
Best path selection static and/or dynamic routing
*All of these answers

Which of the following are data link encapsulations for WAN?
High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)
Frame Relay
Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
*All of these answers

What are the main functions of routers?
*The determination of best paths for incoming data packets and the switching of packets to the proper outgoing interface
Replying to ARP requests when two nodes are on different LANs
*Building routing tables and exchanging the network information contained within them with other routers

Which is an IBM-designed WAN data link for Systems Network Architecture (SNA) environments, largely being replaced by the more versatile HDLC?
Serial Line Interface Protocol
Point-to-Point Protocol
*Synchronous Data Link Control Protocol
Simple Data Level Control Protocol

Which WAN data link protocol is used for signaling and call setup on an ISDN D channel?
*LAPD
LAPF
LAPB
LAPR

Identify the WAN circuit-switched service(s):
*Plain old telephone services (POTS)
Narrowband ISDN with a maximum bandwidth of 1.544 Mbps
*Narrowband ISDN with a maximum bandwidth of 128 kbps

Which service has become an extremely popular WAN technology in its own right, is more efficient than X.25 but with similar services, has a maximum bandwidth of 44.736 Mbps, and offers extremely popular 56-Kbps and 384-Kbps implementations in the United States?
*Frame Relay
X.25
POTS
ATM

Identify the common type(s) of DSL technology/technologies:
High-bit-rate DSL (HDSL)
Symmetric DSL (SDSL)
Asymmetric DSL (ADSL)
*All of these answers

Which is a family of very high-speed physical layer technologies with a series of data rates available with special designations, implemented at different Optical Carrier (OC) levels ranging from 51.84 Mbps (OC-1) to 9,952 Mbps (OC-192), that can achieve these amazing data rates by using wavelength division multiplexing (WDM)?
*SONET
HDSL
ATM
SMDS

'CNA CCNA 2  Ch 2 - Intro to Routers
A router initializes by doing which of the following?
Loading the NVRAM, the setup procedure, and the operating system
*Loading the bootstrap, the operating system, and a configuration file
Loading the bootstrap, the setup procedure, and the operating system

During the setup process in a router, what keys can be used to escape the sequence?
Ctrl-A
Ctrl-E
*Ctrl-C

When establishing a HyperTerminal session, what are the necessary settings?
[DD]
BAUD 9600
DATA BITS 8
PARITY None
STOP BITS 1
FLOW CONTROL None

Which of the following is true at initial boot-up output?
*The Cisco IOS Software version that the router uses can be seen.
The Cisco IOS Software version that the router uses cannot be seen.

Which of the following is true at initial boot-up output?
*The amount of Flash memory can be seen.
The amount of Flash memory cannot be seen.

What does this command do?  Ctrl + a
*Moves to the beginning of the command line
Moves back one character
Moves to the end of the command line
Moves forward one character
Moves back one word
Moves forward one word
Moves out of configuration mode

What does this command do?  Ctrl + b
Moves to the beginning of the command line
*Moves back one character
Moves to the end of the command line
Moves forward one character
Moves back one word
Moves forward one word
Moves out of configuration mode

What does this command do?  Ctrl + e
Moves to the beginning of the command line
Moves back one character
*Moves to the end of the command line
Moves forward one character
Moves back one word
Moves forward one word
Moves out of configuration mode

What does this command do?  Ctrl + f
Moves to the beginning of the command line
Moves back one character
Moves to the end of the command line
*Moves forward one character
Moves back one word
Moves forward one word
Moves out of configuration mode

What does this command do?  Esc + b
Moves to the beginning of the command line
Moves back one character
Moves to the end of the command line
Moves forward one character
*Moves back one word
Moves forward one word
Moves out of configuration mode

What does this command do?  Esc + f
Moves to the beginning of the command line
Moves back one character
Moves to the end of the command line
Moves forward one character
Moves back one word
*Moves forward one word
Moves out of configuration mode

What does this command do?  Ctrl + z
Moves to the beginning of the command line
Moves back one character
Moves to the end of the command line
Moves forward one character
Moves back one word
Moves forward one word
*Moves out of configuration mode

What does the Tab key do?
*Completes the entry
Recalls the last command
Recalls the most recent command
Shows previously entered commands in the buffer
Sets the command buffer size
Enables advanced editing
Disables advanced editing features

What does this command do?  Ctrl + p
Completes the entry
*Recalls the last command
Recalls the most recent command
Shows previously entered commands in the buffer
Sets the command buffer size
Enables advanced editing
Disables advanced editing features

What does this command do?  Ctrl + n
Completes the entry
Recalls the last command
*Recalls the most recent command
Shows previously entered commands in the buffer
Sets the command buffer size
Enables advanced editing
Disables advanced editing features

What does this command do?  show history
Completes the entry
Recalls the last command
Recalls the most recent command
*Shows previously entered commands in the buffer
Sets the command buffer size
Enables advanced editing
Disables advanced editing features

What does this command do?  terminal history size
Completes the entry
Recalls the last command
Recalls the most recent command
Shows previously entered commands in the buffer
*Sets the command buffer size
Enables advanced editing
Disables advanced editing features

What does this command do?  terminal editing
Completes the entry
Recalls the last command
Recalls the most recent command
Shows previously entered commands in the buffer
Sets the command buffer size
*Enables advanced editing
Disables advanced editing features

What does this command do?  terminal no editing
Completes the entry
Recalls the last command
Recalls the most recent command
Shows previously entered commands in the buffer
Sets the command buffer size
Enables advanced editing
*Disables advanced editing features

Which of the following correctly describes a method for specifying how a router loads the Cisco IOS Software?
*Designate fallback sources for the router to use in sequence from NVRAM.
Configure the Cisco IOS Software image for the location where it will bootstrap.
Manually boot a default system image at a virtual terminal.
Manually boot a default system image at the network server.

Which of the following is not a boot option that can be set with the configuration register boot field?
Cisco IOS Software boots in ROM monitor mode.
Cisco IOS Software automatically boots from ROM.
*Cisco IOS Software automatically boots from a TFTP server.
NVRAM is examined for boot system commands.

Which of the following is information displayed by this Cisco IOS Software command?  show version
Detailed statistics about each page of the router's memory
*The name of the system image
The names and sizes of all files in Flash memory
The status of configured network protocols

Which of the following has a limited version of router Cisco IOS Software?
*ROM
Flash memory
TFTP server
Bootstrap

If you want to completely back out of configuration mode, which of the following must you enter?
exit
no config-mode
Ctrl + e
*Ctrl + z

If planning to configure an interface, what is the correct router prompt?
router(config)#
router(config-in)#
router(config-intf)#
*router(config-if)#

What is the acronym used to describe the Cisco text-based user interface?
*IOS
TCP/IP
OSPF
OSI

What two modes of access to router commands exist for Cisco routers?
*User and privileged
User and guest
Privileged and guest
Guest and anonymous

Which mode do you use to make router configuration changes on Cisco routers?
User
*Privileged
Administrator
Root

'CNA CCNA 2  Ch 3 - Configuring a Router
What is a standard?
A formal description of a set of rules and conventions that govern how devices on a network exchange information
*A set of rules or procedures that is either widely used or officially specified
A way in which network devices access the network medium

Using the description command on an interface does what?
Welcomes users to the router
Warns users not to enter the router
*Displays a comment about the interface

A good example of a login banner is what?
Welcome everyone
Everyone please log in
*Authorized access only

What is host name resolution?
*The process of associating a name with a network address
The process of displaying a login message
The process of displaying a description on a router

Configuration backup and documentation is necessary to an organization to maintain an efficient network.
*True
False

Backup of configuration files is not necessary.
True
*False

A TFTP server is the only location where backup files can be stored.
True
*False

If you are planning to configure an interface, what prompt should be on the router?
router(config)#
router(config-in)#
router(config-intf)#
*router(config-if)#

Assuming router changes have been made in configuration mode, which method is the correct order process for configuring a router?
Save changes to backup, decide if the changes are your intended results, examine the results, and examine the backup file.
*Examine the results, decide if the changes are your intended results, save the changes to backup, and examine the backup file.
Decide if the changes are your intended results, examine the backup file, save the changes to backup, and examine the results.
Examine the results, save the changes to backup, decide if the changes are your intended results, and examine the backup file.

Which of the following is a command that can be used to save router configuration changes to a backup?
*Router# copy running-config tftp
Router# show running-config
Router# config mem
Router# copy tftp running-config

Which of the following does not describe password configuration on routers?
*Passwords can be established in every configuration mode.
A password can be established on the console port.
The enable secret password uses an encryption process to alter the password character string.
All password establishment begins in global configuration mode.

What is used for one-line commands that change the entire router?
*Global configuration mode
Privileged mode
User EXEC mode
Interface mode

What does the exit command do in a configuration mode at this prompt?  Router(config-if)#
*It quits the current configuration interface mode.
It reaches the privileged EXEC prompt.
It exits the router.
It switches to the user EXEC prompt.

What are the major elements of a typical router configuration?
*Passwords, interfaces, routing protocols, DNS
Boot sequence, interfaces, TFTP server, NVRAM
NVRAM, ROM, DRAM, interfaces
Interfaces, routing protocols, configuration register, Flash memory

In a password-recovery procedure, immediately after issuing a Ctrl-Break upon router startup, what value should the config register be set to?
0x2102
*0x2142
0x0000
0x10F

'CNA CCNA 2  Ch 4 - Learning About Other Devices
What is the definition for telnet?
A command to determine whether a specific IP address is accessible by sending a packet to the specified address and waiting for a reply.
A command that uses Time-To-Live (TTL) values to generate messages from each router used along the path.
*An Application layer virtual terminal protocol that allows users of one host to log into a remote host and interact as a normal terminal user.

What network testing information does this command provide?  show interfaces 
*It displays line and data link protocol status.
It displays how the router directs traffic across the network.
It displays the path that packets follow across the network.
It displays the names of routers on the network.

What information for each CDP neighbor does this command provide?  show cdp neighbors
*Device identifiers
Address list
*Port identifier
All of these answers

What does this command display? (Select all that apply) show cdp interface

*The values of the CDP timers and the interface status
*The encapsulation used by CDP for its advertisement and discovery frame transmission
The interface configuration of the neighboring routers

What is true for the output of this command?  show cdp entry [device name]
*It displays the Layer 3 addresses configured on the interface that the neighbor uses to send CDP updates to the local router.
It displays the value of neighbors that the router has.
It displays the list of the device numbers of all the neighboring routers.
It displays all the Layer 2 addresses on the interfaces of the neighbor router.

Which command displays the same information displayed by both of these commands?  show cdp neighbors   show cdp entry [device name]
*show cdp neighbors detail
show cdp interface entry
show cdp neighbors entry
show cdp details

What information is displayed by this command?  show cdp neighbors 
Neighbor device ID
Local port type and number
Decremental holdtime value, in seconds
*All of these answers

What four important pieces of information do you receive after issuing a ping command?
*The size and quantity of ICMP packets; the timeout duration; the success rate; and the minimum, average, and maximum round-trip times
The size and quantity of ICMP packets; the MAC address; the success rate; and the minimum, average, and maximum round-trip times
All of these answers
None of these answers

What network testing information does this command provide?  traceroute
It determines if the line protocol is operational.
It determines if a routing table entry exists for the target network.
*It maps every router that a packet goes through to reach its destination.
It determines if upper-layer applications are functioning properly.

Exclamation point (!) ping command replies indicate which condition?
*The number of successful echo requests
The number of unsuccessful echo requests
The number of hops before reaching the destination
All of these answers 

What is true of the router debug commands?
*The debug privileged EXEC command starts the console display of the network events specified in the command parameter.
*The undebug all command (or no debug all) turns off debugging.
The buffer debug command is used to buffer the login.

'CNA CCNA 2  Ch 5 - Managing Cisco IOS Software
Which answer correctly describes a method for specifying how a router loads the Cisco IOS Software?
*Designate fallback sources for the router to use in sequence from NVRAM.
Configure the Cisco IOS Software image for the location where it will bootstrap.
Manually boot a default system image at a virtual terminal.
Manually boot a default system image at the network server.

Which of the following is not a boot option that can be set with the configuration register boot field?
Cisco IOS Software boots in ROM monitor mode.
Cisco IOS Software automatically boots from ROM.
*Cisco IOS Software automatically boots from a TFTP server.
NVRAM is examined for boot system commands.

What information is displayed by this command?  show version
Detailed statistics about each page of the router's memory
*The name of the system image
The names and sizes of all files in Flash memory
The status of configured network protocols

Which command is used to discover the configuration register setting?
show register
show running-config
*show version
show startup-config

What information is not provided in the Cisco image filename system?
The capabilities of the image
The platform on which the image runs
Where the image runs
*The size of the image

Which of the following is not part of the recommended procedure for loading a new Cisco IOS Software image to Flash memory from a TFTP server? (The procedures are listed in correct order.)
Back up a copy of the current software image to the TFTP server.
*Enter the copy flash tftp command to start downloading the new image from the server.
The procedure asks if you are willing to erase Flash memory.
A series of Vs on the display indicates successful checksum verification.

What is the initial boot attempt if the router configuration register is set to 0x2101?
Setup mode
TFTP server
*ROM
Flash memory

Which of the following has a limited version of router Cisco IOS Software?
*ROM
Flash memory
TFTP server
Bootstrap

What is the initial boot attempt if the router configuration register is set to 0x2102?
Flash memory
TFTP server
ROM
*Check for boot system commands

Which of the following is the sequence used by the router for automatic fallback to locate the Cisco IOS Software?
(1) Flash memory, (2) NVRAM, (3) TFTP server
(1) NVRAM, (2) TFTP server, (3) Flash memory
(1) NVRAM, (2) Flash memory, (3) TFTP server
*(1) Flash memory, (2) TFTP server, (3) ROM

Which of the following is not displayed by this Cisco IOS command?  show version
*Statistics for configured interfaces
The type of platform running the Cisco IOS Software
The configuration register setting
The Cisco IOS Software version

Which of the following correctly describes preparing to use a TFTP server to copy software to Flash memory?
*The TFTP server must be a connected router or a host system, such as a UNIX workstation or a laptop computer.
The TFTP server must be a system connected to an Ethernet network.
The name of the router containing the Flash memory must be identified.
The Flash memory must be enabled.

Why do you create a Cisco IOS Software image backup?
To verify that the copy in Flash memory is the same as the copy in ROM
To provide a fallback copy of the current image before copying the image to a new router
To create a fallback copy of the current image as part of the procedures during recovery from system failure
*To create a fallback copy of the current image before updating with a new version

What is the command needed to upgrade an old version of the Cisco IOS Software by downloading a new image from the TFTP server?
boot system tftp 131.21.11.3
*copy tftp flash
show flash
tftp ios.exe

'CNA CCNA 2  Ch 6 - Routing & Routing Protocols
Which of the following best describes one function of Layer 3, the network layer, in the OSl model?
It is responsible for reliable network communication between nodes.
It is concerned with physical addressing and network topology.
*It determines the best path for traffic to take through the network.
It manages data exchange between presentation layer entities.

What function allows routers to evaluate available routes to a destination and to establish the preferred handling of a packet?
Data linkage
*Path determination
SDLC interface protocol
Frame Relay

How does the network layer forward packets from the source to the destination?
*By using an IP routing table
By using ARP responses
By referring to a name server
By referring to the bridge

What two parts of a network layer address do routers use to forward traffic through a network?
*Network address and destination IP address
Network address and MAC address
Host address and MAC address
MAC address and subnet mask

Which of the following best describes a routed protocol?
*Its address provides enough information to allow a packet to be forwarded from host to host.
It provides information necessary to pass data packets up to the next-highest network layer.
It allows routers to communicate with other routers to maintain and update address tables.
It allows routers to bind MAC and IP addresses together.

Which of the following best describes a routing protocol?
*A protocol that accomplishes routing through the implementation of an algorithm
A protocol that specifies how and when MAC and IP addresses are bound together
A protocol that defines the format and use of fields within a data packet
A protocol that allows a packet to be forwarded from host to host

What is one advantage of distance vector algorithms?
They are not likely to count to infinity.
You can implement them easily on very large networks.
They are not prone to routing loops.
*They are computationally simple.

Which of the following best describes a link-state algorithm?
*It recreates the exact topology of the entire internetwork.
It requires numerous computations.
It determines distance and direction to any link on the internetwork.
It uses little network overhead and reduces overall traffic.

Why do routing loops occur?
*Slow convergence occurs after a modification to the internetwork.
Split horizons are artificially created.
Network segments fail catastrophically and take down other network segments in a cascade effect.
Default routes never were established and initiated by the network administrator.

Which of the following best describes the concept of describing EIGRP as a balanced hybrid routing protocol?
*It determines best paths as a distance vector routing protocol, but topology changes trigger routing table updates.
It uses distance vector routing to determine best paths between topology during high-traffic periods.
It uses topology to determine best paths but does frequent routing table updates.
It uses topology to determine best paths but uses distance vectors to circumvent inactive network links.

What is a network with only one path to a router called?
Static network
Dynamic network
Entity network
*Stub network

Which best describes a default route?
Urgent-data route manually entered by a network administrator
Route used when part of the network fails
*Route used when the destination network is not listed explicitly in the routing table
Preset shortest path

'CNA CCNA 2  Ch 7 - Distance Vector Routing Protocols
What kind of routing table entries does a router have listed at first?
*Entries about networks or subnets that are directly connected
Entries that it has learned about from the Cisco IOS Software
Entries whose IP address and mask information are known
Entries that it has learned about from other routers

Which of the following best describes a static route?
A routing table entry that is used to direct frames for which a next hop is not explicitly listed in the routing table
*A route that is administratively entered into the routing table to take precedence over routes chosen by dynamic routing protocols
A route that adjusts automatically to network topology or traffic changes
A route that adjusts involuntarily to direct frames within a network topology

Which of the following best describes a default route?
*A 0.0.0.0/0 routing table entry that is used to direct frames for which a next hop is not explicitly listed in the routing table
A route that is explicitly configured and entered into the routing table
A route that adjusts automatically to network topology or traffic changes
A route that adjusts involuntarily to direct frames within a network topology

What are exterior routing protocols used for?
To transmit between nodes on a network
To deliver information within a single autonomous system
*To communicate between autonomous systems
To set up a compatibility infrastructure between networks

What are interior routing protocols used for?
They are used to set up a compatibility infrastructure between networks.
They are used to communicate between autonomous systems.
They are used to transmit between nodes on a network.
*They are used within a single autonomous system.

Which of the following is a global task?
Addressing IP network numbers by specifying subnet values
*Enabling a routing protocol such as RIP or IGRP
Assigning network/subnet addresses and the appropriate subnet mask
Setting up a routing metric to find the best path to each network

What metric does RIP use to determine the best path for a packet?
Bandwidth
*Hop count
Varies with each message
Administrative distance

What command can you use to check a router suspected of sending bad routing information?
router(config)# show ip route
router# show ip route
*router> show ip protocol
router(config-router)# show ip protocol

What command syntax is used to show the IP routing protocol used by a router?
router> show router protocol
router(config)> show ip protocol
router(config)# show router protocol
*router> show ip protocol

What does the last number mean in the following command?  Router (config)# ip route 2.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 1.0.0.2 5
The number of hops
The number of routes to the destination
*The administrative distance
The destination's reference number in the routing table

An administrative distance of 15 indicates which of the following?
The IP address is static.
The IP address is dynamic.
*The routing information source is relatively trustworthy.
The routing information source is relatively untrustworthy.

What command syntax would be used to manually add a new LAN to the routing table?
router (config)> ip route 2.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 via 1.0.0.2
*router (config)# ip route 2.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 1.0.0.2
router (config)# ip route 2.0.0.0 via 1.0.0.2
router (config)# ip route 2.0.0.0 1.0.0.2 using 255.0.0.0

'CNA CCNA 2  Ch 8 - TCP-IP Suite Error & Control Messages
ICMP is an error-reporting protocol for IP.
*True
False

ICMP messages are encapsulated as data in datagrams in the same way that any other data is delivered using IP.
*True
False

A default gateway must be configured if datagrams are to travel outside the local network.
*True
False

What does TTL mean?
Time-To-List
*Time-To-Live
Terminal-To-Live
Terminal-To-List

'CNA CCNA 2  Ch 9 - Basic Router Troubleshooting
When a technician performs basic testing of a network, which of the following is true?
*The technician should proceed in sequence from one OSI reference model layer to the next.
The technician should proceed with any desired OSI layer.
The technician should proceed with the management level.
The technician should test for OSI reference model layer issues in a random fashion.

What approach should a technician start with when troubleshooting a network?
*The technician should start with a structured approach.
The technician should start with an approach of personal choosing.
The technician should start with any approach.
The technician should start with a hit-and-miss approach.

Which layer of the OSI model should a technician begin with when troubleshooting a network problem?
*Begin with Layer 1.
Begin with Layer 2.
Begin with Layer 3.
Begin with Layer 4.

If a technician wants to test network connectivity, which basic command should be used?
telnet
*ping
debug
traceroute

When a network administrator wants to verify the application layer software between source and destination stations, which of the following commands should be used?
ping
*telnet
debug
traceroute

What command can you use to check a router on the network suspected sending bad routing information?
router(config)# show ip route
router# show ip route
*router> show ip protocols
router(config-router)# show ip protocol

Why would you display the IP routing table?
To set the router update schedule
*To identify destination network addresses and next-hop pairs
To trace where datagrams are coming from
To set the parameters and filters for the router

If you wanted to see RIP routing updates as they are sent and received, what command syntax would you use?
router# show ip rip
router# debug ip protocols
*router# debug ip rip
router# show ip rip update

The dynamic output of the debug command comes at a _____ performance cost, which produces processor overhead.
*High
Low
Medium
Maximum

By default, the router sends the debug output and system messages to what?
*The console
The switch
The PC
The user

The telnet command provides what type of terminal?
Register
*Virtual
IOS Software
Command

What does ICMP mean?
Internet Control Message Parameter
Internal Control Message Protocol
*Internet Control Message Protocol
Internet Control Message Performance

Most interfaces or NICs have what type of lights that show whether there is a valid connection?
*Indicator
Catalyst
Responsive
Inactive

Telnet is used at what layer of the OSI reference model?
Layer 1
Layer 5
Layer 6
*Layer 7

If the routing protocol is not enabled or the IP address cannot be determined, at which layer of the OSI model should an administrator begin to look?
Layer 1
Layer 2
*Layer 3
Layer 4

'CNA CCNA 2  Ch 10 - Intermediate TCP-IP
Which definition best describes TCP/IP?
*It is a suite of protocols that can be used to communicate across any set of interconnected networks.
It is a suite of protocols that allows LANs to connect into WANs.
It is a suite of protocols that allows for data transmission across a multitude of networks.
It is a suite of protocols that allows different devices to be shared by interconnected networks.

Which of the following is one of the protocols found at the transport layer?
UCP
*UDP
TDP
TDC

What is the purpose of port numbers?
*They keep track of different conversations crossing the network at the same time.
Source systems use them to keep a session organized and to select the proper application.
End systems use them to dynamically assign end users to a particular session, depending on their application use.
Source systems generate them to predict destination addresses.

Which of the following best describes UDP?
A protocol that acknowledges flawed or intact datagrams
A protocol that detects errors and requests retransmissions from the source
A protocol that processes datagrams and requests retransmissions when necessary
*A protocol that exchanges datagrams without acknowledgments or guaranteed delivery

Which of the following TCP/IP layers includes file transfer, e-mail, remote login, and network management?
Transport
*Application
Internet
Network

Why is sequence numbering in the TCP three-way handshake/open connections used?
*To ensure that lost data can be recovered if problems occur later
To determine how much data the receiving station can accept at one time
To provide efficient use of bandwidth by users
To change binary ping responses into information in the upper layers

What does a TCP sliding window do?
It makes the window larger so that more data can come through at once, which results in more efficient use of bandwidth.
The window size slides to each section of the datagram to receive data, which results in more efficient use of bandwidth.
*It is a method of flow control for network data transfers using the receiver's window size.
It limits the incoming data so that each segment must be sent one by one, which is an inefficient use of bandwidth.

UDP segments use what protocols to provide reliability?
Network layer protocols
*Application layer protocols
Internet protocols
Transmission Control Protocols

Which of the following best describes window size?
The maximum size of the window that software can have and still process data rapidly
*The number of bytes that can be transmitted while awaiting an acknowledgment
The size of the window, in picas, that must be set ahead of time so that data can be sent
The size of the window opening on a monitor, which is not always equal to the monitor size

What is the function of ARP?
It completes research for a Layer 3 destination address.
*It is used to map a known IP address to an unknown MAC address.
It is used to map an unknown IP address to a known MAC address.
It sends a broadcast message looking for the router IP address.

'CNA CCNA 2  Ch 11 - Access Control Lists
Common ACL functions include filtering packets internally, protecting the internal network from illegal Internet access, and restricting access to virtual terminal ports.
*True
False

ACL is an acronym for:
Accessibility control list
Accountability control list
Assessment control list
*Access control list

Which type of ACL works by comparing the source IP address against the ACL rules?
Extended
Named
*Standard
Router

Which type of ACL works by comparing the source IP address, destination IP address, or other parameters against the ACL rules?
*Extended
Named
Standard
Router

Which type of ACL uses names instead of numbers to distinguish ACLs.
Extended
*Named
Standard
Router

As a general rule, ACLs should be placed where in the network?
In the Internet
In the core
*Closest to the traffic to be controlled
None of these answers

What command is used to apply an ACL to a vty port?
access-group
ip access-class
ip access-group
*access-class

Which of the following commands would you use to find out whether any ACLs are set on an interface?
show running-config
show ip protocols
*show ip interface
show ip network

If you want to permit traffic based on its addressing or protocol type, you would use which of the following commands?
Router #access-list access-list number {permit I deny} {test conditions}
*Router (config)#access-list access-list number {permit I deny} {test conditions}
Router (config-if)#access-list access-list number {permit I deny} {test conditions}
None of the above

Standard IP access lists permit or deny routing of a packet based on the source IP address and the destination protocol suite.
True
*False

Access lists impact network security based on which of the following factors?
The data content of the packets
The destination subnet/host/network for the packets
*The source subnet/host/network of the packets
The type of the network they are routed through

What type of networking device would be needed to implement access lists to increase network security?
Hub
*Router
Bridge
Switch

What does the following access list allow? access-list 1 permit 204.211.19.162 0.0.0.0
"Deny my network only"
*"Permit a specific host"
"Permit only my network"
None of these answers